2013年12月31日星期二

ACSM 010-111, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 010-111
Nom d'Examen: ACSM (ACSM Certified Personal Trainer)
Questions et réponses: 208 Q&As

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NO.1 .The prime movers for extension of the knee are the
A. Bicepsfemoris.
B. Bicepsbrachii.
C. Quadricepsfemoris.
D. Gastrocnemius.
Answer: C

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NO.2 .The arm is capable of performing all of the following motions EXCEPT
A. Flexion.
B. Abduction.
C. Inversion.
D. Supination.
Answer: C

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NO.3 .The law of inertia
A. States that a body at rest tends to remain at rest, whereas a body in motion tends to continue to
stay in motion with consistent speed and in the same direction unless acted on by an outside force
B. States that the velocity of a body is changed only when acted on by an additional force
C. States that the driving force of the body is doubled and that the rate of acceleration is also
doubled.
D. States that the production of any force will create another force that will be opposite and equal
to the first force.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The C-shaped cartilages of the trachea allow all of the following to occur EXCEPT
A. Ciliated movement of mucus-secreting cells.
B. Distention of the esophagus.
C. Maintenance of open airway.
D. Prevention of tracheal collapse during pres- sure changes.
Answer: A

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NO.5 .Which of the following is considered to be a "balland-socket" joint?
A. Ankle.
B. Elbow.
C. Knee.
D. Hip.
Answer: D

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NO.6 .An abnormal curve of the spine with lateral deviation of the vertebral column is called
A. Lordosis.
B. Scoliosis.
C. Kyphosis.
D. Primary curve.
Answer: B

ACSM   010-111   010-111

NO.7 .A standard site for the measurement of circumfer- ences is the
A. Abdomen.
B. Neck.
C. Wrist.
D. Ankle.
Answer: A

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NO.8 .Arteries are large-diameter vessels that carry blood away from the heart. As they course through
the body, they progressively decrease in size until they become
A. Arterioles.
B. Anastomoses.
C. Venules.
D. Veins.
Answer: A

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NO.9 .Standard sites for the measurement of skinfolds include the
A. Medial thigh.
B. Biceps.
C. Infrailiac.
D. Forearm.
Answer: B

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NO.10 .A client in your exercise class has been complaining of back pain with no ridiculer symptoms. This
person has been treated medically and is now joining the exercise program to improve flexibility in
the low back. Which exercise would be most appropriate for this person to address the stated
goal?
A. Hip flexor stretch.
B. Knee-to-chest stretch.
C. Gastrocnemius stretch.
D. Lateral trunk stretch.
Answer: B

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NO.11 .The most common site used for measurement of the pulse during exercise is the
A. Popliteal.
B. Femoral.
C. Radial.
D. Dorsalis pedis.
Answer: C

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NO.12 .A baseball pitcher has been complaining of weakness in the lateral rotation motions of the
shoulder. You have been asked to evaluate him for a strengthening program. Which of the
following muscles would you have him concentrate on strengthening?
A. Subscapularis.
B. Teres major.
C. Latissimus dorsi.
D. Teres minor.
Answer: D

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NO.13 .All of the following statements are true regarding long bones EXCEPT
A. Thediaphysis is composed of compact bone.
B. The epiphysis consists of spongy bone.
C. Most bones of the axial skeleton are of this type.
D. The central shaft encases themedullary canal.
Answer: C

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NO.14 .In the organization of skeletal muscle, the muscle cell contains the contractile proteins. Which of
the following is a contractile protein?
A. Myosin.
B. Muscle fascicle.
C. Myofibril.
D. Muscle fiber.
Answer: A

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NO.15 .Blood leaving the heart to be oxygenated in the lungs must first pass through the right atrium and
ventricle. Through which valve does blood flow when moving from the right atrium to the right
ventricle?
A. Bicuspid valve.
B. Tricuspid valve.
C. Pulmonic valve.
D. Aortic valve.
Answer: B

ACSM   010-111 examen   010-111

NO.16 .Cartilage is categorized as which of the following types of connective tissue?
A. Loose.
B. Dense.
C. Fluid.
D. Supporting.
Answer: D

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NO.17 .Blood from the peripheral anatomy flows to the heart through the superior and inferior venae
cavae into the
A. Right atrium.
B. Left atrium.
C. Right ventricle.
D. Left ventricle.
Answer: A

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NO.18 .Which of the following is the ability of a force to cause rotation of a lever?
A. Center of gravity.
B. Base of support.
C. Torque.
D. Stability.
Answer: C

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NO.19 .Running is a locomotor activity similar to walking but with some differences. In comparison to
walking, running requires greater
A. Balance.
B. Muscle strength.
C. Range of motion.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.20 .Functions of bone include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Support for the body.
B. Protection of organs and tissues.
C. Production of red blood cells.
D. Production of force.
Answer: D

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NO.1 You are explaining the role of the Service Desk to your new analysts. Which of these options best
describes one of the key requirements?
A. The Service Desks role is to provide a high-quality service promptly and consistently
B. The Service Desks role is to resolve users Problems and record all Change Requests
C. The Service Desks role is to initiate other support teams into the Standard Operating Procedures of the
Service Desk
D. The Service Desks role is to act as a single point of contact for all organisational enquiries
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of these answers would NOT be a suitable area to include in your service ethics code of
conduct?
A. A list of expected behaviour to ensure that all Service Desk employees understand what the
organisation expects of them
B. Standards of moral and ethical behaviour
C. How to manage risk on behalf of the organisation
D. Specific techniques for dealing with difficult business partners
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of these options is NOT a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Developing and implementing Service Desk goals that integrate with business objectives
B. Representing the IT organisation to its users
C. Maintaining the highest level of productive IT time for users in accordance with the SLA
D. Providing the user with root cause analysis for Incidents resolved at first level
Answer: D

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NO.4 Your IT director has told you that your team must follow best practice. What is a major benefit of so
doing?
A. Customers and employees will feel more satisfied with the service provided by your team
B. Senior management meetings will not dwell on the failings of your team
C. The speed of resolution becomes the sole focus of everyones attention
D. Team members are less likely to be involved in cross-department projects
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are trying to promote the Service Desk through a variety of recognised and effective channels.
Which of these statements best describes a channel to use?
A. Articles in the local newspaper and Have a Go days
B. Open house days and distributing Service Desk fliers
C. Distributing free pens and Service Desk induction training
D. Induction training and team-building away days
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is a business best practice quality model?
A. COBIT
B. SLM
C. ITIL
D. Six Sigma
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of these options would be a management activity in directing, controlling and co-ordinating
activities?
A. Providing guidance to staff when needed
B. Providing an efficient ergonomic office environment
C. Developing and documenting staff management procedures
D. Developing and implementing an effective IT platform
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about Problem Management is correct?
A. The Service Desk is not responsible for Problem Management but contributes by identifying recurring
Incidents
B. The Service Desk is not responsible for Problem Management but manages Major Incident reviews
C. The Service Desk is responsible for Problem Management and may be required to work with technical
teams to diagnose Problems
D. The Service Desk is responsible for Problem Management and uses known errors to aid fast resolution
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of these options would be a practical way to gain an understanding of other countries cultures?
A. Study the religion practised in the region surrounding the country
B. Take a course in international business or cross-cultural studies
C. Travel to several countries in the area of the country
D. Read travel books about the country
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which option best describes the expectations of the Service Desk's users?
A. They have confidence that the Service Desk is in control of their Incident or Service Request when
speaking to a senior team member
B. Their incident is professionally managed and they receive consistent and courteous service
C. Their Incidents are resolved very quickly and they are periodically informed of progress
D. They are provided with good decision data and feedback on all their Incidents
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of these options most closely represents the overall mission of the Service Desk?
A. to promote the use of self-help tools and drive down support costs
B. to provide high-quality and consistent user and technical support
C. to continually improve the quality of IT services
D. to present the best possible public image to customers and users
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of these options is NOT an element of successful project management?
A. Managing costs
B. Ensuring a continual improvement focus
C. Developing technical solutions
D. Defining project objectives
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of these options would be a typical feature of an On-going survey?
A. It is carried out on a six monthly cycle
B. It is executed as soon as possible after a call is closed
C. It is conducted with a minimum of 10 questions to be comprehensive
D. It is designed to show longer term trends in customer satisfaction
Answer: B

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NO.14 If you choose to implement a formal standard rather than a best practice, which would be the best
description of the difference?
A. A best practice does not need evidence to prove progress, a formal standard does
B. A formal standard may not be ITIL compliant, a best practice would be
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Best practice does not include ISO/IEC 20000, a formal standard includes ITIL
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of these options best describes the value of adopting a resource-planning model?
A. It helps even out the handling of calls across the day or shift
B. It quantifies the staffing required to meet SLA and business needs
C. It provides a sound recruitment base for consistent staffing
D. It boosts staff retention
Answer: B

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NO.16 You intend to implement some far-reaching changes to the way in which your Service Desk currently
operates, but to do so you need the support of other teams within IT. Which action should you undertake
to gain this support?
A. Give a presentation to the board of directors to guarantee their support
B. Make time to develop a social relationship with your manager
C. Demonstrate your understanding of any concerns others may have
D. Begin by creating a powerfully-worded vision statement
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which statement best describes some of the characteristics of a successful Service Desk?
A. Measurements are published when the KPIs have been met or exceeded: Service Improvement
Programmes are discussed
B. Satisfaction surveys for both staff and customers are considered superfluous: resource management
is reviewed annually
C. Leadership practices ensure that future direction is clearly laid out: policies are documented, regularly
reviewed and monitored
D. Benchmarking is pencilled in for the next financial cycle: Continual Service Improvement will be
discussed at that time
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of these options is the best way in which you can use formal or informal networks to help
develop your ideas?
A. Recommend holding off-site meetings in a local pub
B. Develop scenarios that will demonstrate how your suggestions and plans will raise everyones profiles
C. Hold meetings with stakeholders to obtain their support for your proposals
D. Hold meetings with your team to discuss aspects of your proposals
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which option is a clear objective of having a Service Desk mission statement?
A. To inform staff to follow procedures
B. To get IT resolver groups working to clear OLAs
C. To show IT management how the Service Desk is structured
D. To obtain commitment and buy-in to the Service Desk
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of these options is a primary objective of the Service Asset and Configuration Management
process?
A. To record the ownership of every item of hardware and software in the asset base
B. To ensure that IT services, assets, resources and processes are properly managed and maintained
C. To clearly identify the business dependencies of each inventory item
D. To map assets into a clear network infrastructure diagram
Answer: B

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NO.21 You have recently been promoted to Service Desk Manager and you are keen to show how much you
wish to succeed in this role. Which statement best describes some of the skills that will help you to
succeed?
A. Excellent influencing skills, exemplary debating and creative writing skills
B. A University Degree in Computer Sciences and strong negotiating skills
C. Strong team building skills, excellent people-management and communication skills
D. Time management skills excellent technical and analytical skills
Answer: C

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NO.22 You need to get a project and its budget approved by your board, which of these options would be the
most appropriate action to take?
A. Ensure that all stakeholders are sent regular operational reports about the project
B. Organise a conference for board members to discuss the project in detail
C. Build a business-based project plan to present to senior management
D. Write a full report on your opinion of the project and those responsible
Answer: C

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NO.23 What is the purpose of a Service Desk vision statement?
A. To assist staff in achieving their dream goals in their future careers
B. To help management see where the Service Desk is going strategically
C. To keep the Service Desk in the forefront of user minds
D. To ensure that all staff understand the vision and consistently work towards it
Answer: D

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NO.24 The Service Desk has a strategic role to play within an organisation, which of these options best
describes a method you could use to ensure that you are able to develop clear, insightful strategies?
A. Understand and communicate how the Service Desk assists the organisation in meeting its team
objectives
B. Familiarise yourself with the goals and objectives of other organisations
C. A best practice demonstrates good governance, a formal standard demonstrates adherence
D. Network with people in other organisations and within the support industry and your communities
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of these options is NOT likely to be a role of the Service Desk?
A. To balance support expenses to keep IT support performing at the optimum levels of quality and cost
effectiveness
B. To integrate support goals with business goals
C. To provide individual and personal IT support to each business user
D. To report on service breaches and their reasons
Answer: C

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NO.26 What is the value of telephone support in a Service Desk?
A. First contact resolution
B. Increased turnaround times
C. Reduced abandon rate
D. Skills-based routing
Answer: A

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NO.27 Performing a skills gap analysis and identifying appropriate salary levels are preparatory requirements
for what?
A. Service Desk recruitment
B. Service Catalogue definition
C. Service Level Agreement negotiation
D. Skills Matrix creation
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following is a key objective of the IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM) process?
A. To eliminate single points of contact for services
B. To eliminate single points of failure for services
C. To remove critical resources for services
D. To remove long term workarounds for services
Answer: B

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NO.29 Typically, what might a vision statement identify for the Service Desk?
A. Short-term goals
B. Medium-term objectives
C. Long-term goals
D. Ongoing operational objectives
Answer: C

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NO.30 What is the key outcome of keeping commitments to users, team members and organisations?
A. It boosts credibility, trust and customer satisfaction
B. It boosts the teams importance and status
C. It enhances the problem-solving capability of the team
D. It demonstrates dedication to continued service improvement
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: BCP-810
Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (Developing Applications for the BlackBerry Solution)
Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

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NO.1 Which file type may be signed using the RIM Signature Tool and Code Signing Keys? (Choose one.)
A. COD
B. JAR
C. EXE
D. JAD
E. ALX
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which three of the following debugging features are supported in BlackBerry IDEs? (Choose three.)
A. Get a variablevalueGet a variable? value
B. Change a variablevalueChange a variable? value
C. Hot code replacement
D. Arbitrary code execution
E. Creating new types
Answer: A,B,D

BlackBerry   certification BCP-810   BCP-810   BCP-810

NO.3 Which of the following situations could interrupt a wireless network data connection on a BlackBerry
device? (Choose one.)
A. AWi-Fi connection is established
B. Removable media is removed
C. A Bluetooth connection is established
D. A GPS radio is activated
E. A phone call is initiated or received
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which of the following file types is needed by the IDE to locate the source code for a COD
file-packaged application? (Choose one.)
A. RAPC
B. JAR
C. DEBUG
D. CSL
E. JAD
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following can receive PIN messages? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry devices with BlackBerry Messenger
B. Any cellular phone
C. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. BlackBerry Internet Service
E. Any BlackBerry device
Answer: E

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NO.6 A developer wants to distribute an application OTA using the BlackBerry Browser. Which
application file that provides information about the application needs to be placed on a web server?
(Choose one.)
A. JAD
B. ALX
C. COD
D. JAR
E. JDE
Answer: A

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NO.7 A BlackBerry device application collects data and needs to merge it with data on a server before
pushing out an updated summary page. Which of the following collection of tools would be most
appropriate for testing this application? (Choose one.)
A. A BlackBerry MDS-CS Simulator and a real BlackBerry device
B. A database server, a proxy, and a real BlackBerry device
C. A BlackBerry ESS Simulator and a real BlackBerry device
D. A web server and a BlackBerry Device Simulator
E. A BlackBerry MDS-CS Simulator and a BlackBerry Device Simulator
Answer: E

BlackBerry examen   BCP-810   BCP-810   BCP-810

NO.8 Application X needs to update the BlackBerry device user? address book with information from a
social networking site. It will also need to allow the user to tag images taken using the Camera application
and upload them to the site. Which two of the following application approaches will support these
requirements? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Widget
B. Web application
C. BlackBerry Applet
D. BlackBerry Java application
E. BlackBerry MDS-CS
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which tool should be used to facilitate application test cases by simulating BlackBerry device user
interaction with the BlackBerry Device Simulator? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry MDS-CS Simulator
B. Javaloader
C. Controller Command
D. ESS
E. BlackBerry Desktop Manager
Answer: C

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NO.10 What would cause a signed application to become unsigned? (Choose one.)
A. The application is re-compiled
B. The signature expires
C. The application is installed too many times
D. The evoke Key button of the Signature Tool is pressed
E. The JAD and ALX files are deleted
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which method does RIM recommend for managing multiple screen displays within a BlackBerry device
application? (Choose one.)
A. Organize the screens into a tabbed panel
B. Push full sized screens to the top of a stack
C. Generate pop-up screens as required
D. Use re-sizable screens that can be collapsed and restored
E. Use a mixture of transparent and opaque screens
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which two of the following simulators should be used to simulate the interaction between a web
application on a BlackBerry device and a web server that is behind a corporate firewall? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Firewall Simulator
B. BlackBerry Screen Simulator
C. BlackBerry Device Simulator
D. BlackBerry MDS-CS Simulator
E. BlackBerry ESS Simulator
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 Application X must receive push updates from a public server every morning. The application must
display a notification to the BlackBerry device user when the new update is received. Which two of the
following application approaches will support these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Web application with BlackBerry Internet Service browsing
B. BlackBerry Widget with BlackBerry Internet Service Push APIs
C. BlackBerry Widget with BlackBerry Enterprise Server Push APIs
D. BlackBerry Java application with BlackBerry Internet Service Push APIs
E. BlackBerry Java application with BlackBerry Internet Service browsing
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 In order to write a BlackBerry device application that uses a complex custom user interface, which two
of the following IDEs could be used? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Plug-in for Visual Studio
B. BlackBerry Java Development Environment
C. BlackBerry JDE Plug-in for Eclipse
D. BlackBerry Web Development Plug-in for Eclipse
E. BlackBerry Web Development Plug-in for Visual Studio
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 If an application is built using BlackBerry JDE version 4.6, on which of the following BlackBerry Device
Software versions can the application be executed? (Choose one.)
A. Any BlackBerry Device Software version
B. BlackBerry Device Software 4.6 and below
C. Only BlackBerry Device Software 4.6
D. BlackBerry Device Software 4.6 and above
E. All versions above BlackBerry Device Software 4.6
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two of the following transport routes must go through the wireless network? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. WAP
C. BlackBerry Internet Service
D. Direct TCP
E. Wi-Fi
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 What are two ways to create an application UI that is consistent with the native BlackBerry UI? (Choose
two.)
A. Provide context-specific action menus on each page
B. Make use of the banner to present interactive information
C. Inherit default behaviors by using or extending existing UI components
D. Use BlackBerry UI construction tool to build the new UI from an existing template
E. Specify the font for the application screens
Answer: A,C

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NO.18 A technician needs a field service application that will support receipt of work orders and determine a
customer location. What are two advantages of using a Java application over a web application in this
situation? (Choose two.)
A. Java applications can access a server application over the intranet
B. Java applications run consistently faster than web applications
C. Java applications can display a BlackBerry Maps Field within the application
D. Java applications require a local client
E. Java applications can operate while out of coverage
Answer: C,E

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NO.19 Which two of the following mechanisms are available to toggle content protection on the BlackBerry
device? (Choose two.)
A. IT policy
B. API call
C. BlackBerry Device setting
D. Desktop Manager setting
E. Application control
Answer: A,C

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NO.20 Application X must track field service agents, report their locations back to the intranet application
server, and push alerts for new jobs during the day. Given the scenario, which three of the following
components are required for application X to function properly? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. BlackBerry Internet Service
C. A GPS enabled BlackBerry device
D. BlackBerry Internet Service Push APIs
E. BlackBerry Mobile Data System Connection Service
Answer: A,C,E

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Code d'Examen: BCP-621
Nom d'Examen: BlackBerry (Designing and Deploying a BlackBerry Solution v5.0 in a IBM Lotus Domino Environment)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Management has requested that the ability to activate BlackBerry devices on the BlackBerry Enterprise
Server be restricted to approved BlackBerry device models only. What can be used to accommodate this
request? (Choose one)
A. IT Policy
B. PIN to Model Mapping
C. Enterprise Service Policy
D. Application Control Policy
E. Group Filter
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which tool can be used to help control the amount of data the BlackBerry Synchronization Service
sends after an upgrade to BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 5.0 is complete? (Choose one)
A. SBInjector
B. PolcTrait
C. TraitTool
D. SBThrottle
E. SyncControl
Answer: C

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NO.3 After upgrading two Blackberry Enterprise Server instances to software version 5.0 services books and
IT polices are automatically updated and sent to BlackBerry devices running which minimum version of
BlackBerry Device Software? (Choose one)
A. 3.8 and above
B. 4.0 and above
C. 4.2 and above
D. 4.3 and above
E. 5.0 and above
Answer: B

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NO.4 Nextair Corporation has determined the hardware running BlackBerry Enterprise Server software
version 4.1.6 will be insufficient to handle version 5.0. They plan to perform a cutover upgrade using the
existing SQL database. What is an advantage of implementing this strategy? (Choose one)
A. There is no downtime for other BlackBerry Enterprise Server software version 4.1.6 instances sharing
the same SQL database
B. They will save the cost of an additional SRP Identifier
C. There is no need to back up the database prior to upgrade
D. The SQL database must be hosted locally to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: B

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NO.5 One thousand BlackBerry 8830 devices have been sent to the employees in the regional offices and the
BlackBerry device users will be issued enterprise activation passwords next week.
Management would like to prevent unneeded wireless data charges. What can be done to ensure this
mass enterprise activation process uses as little wireless data as possible? (Choose one)
A. Set the 'Disable Wireless Activations' IT policy to 'True'
B. Set the 'Disable Wireless Bulk Loads' IT policy to 'True'
C. Set the 'Disable Enterprise Activation Progress' IT policy to 'True'
D. Set theisable Wireline Activations' IT policySet the ?isable Wireline Activations' IT policy to 'True'
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 010-002
Nom d'Examen: MYSQL (Certified MySQL Associate (English))
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Which part of a SELECT statement specifies the tables from which data is to be retrieved?
Select the best response.
A. The SELECT list.
B. The FROM clause.
C. The WHERE clause.
D. The LIMIT clause.
Answer: B

MYSQL   010-002   010-002 examen

NO.2 Which of the following statements can be used to list all databases that are accessible to the current
user?
Select the best response.
A. LIST DATABASES
B. SHOW DATABASES
C. DISPLAY DATABASES
D. VIEW DATABASES
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following statements will discard the existing database called world?
Select the best response.
A. DELETE DATABASE world
B. DROP DATABASE world
C. REMOVE DATABASE world
D. TRUNCATE DATABASE world
Answer: B

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NO.4 A table is successfully created by executing the following statement:
CREATE TABLE numbers (
double_number double,
decimal_number decimal(2,1)
)
One row is successfully inserted into the numbers table. At this point, the table contains the following
data:
+---------------+----------------+
| double_number | decimal_number |
+---------------+----------------+
| 1.5 | 2.5 |
+---------------+----------------+
The row is updated by executing the following statement:
UPDATE numbers
SET double_number = double_number + 0.25,
decimal_number = decimal_number + 0.01
Which values are now stored in the double_number and decimal_number columns of the updated row?
Select the best response.
A. 1.8 and 2.5
B. 1.75 and 2.5
C. 1.8 and 2.51
D. 1.75 and 2.51
Answer: B

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NO.5 The default database contains a table called City. Which of the following statements may be executed
to obtain a statement that could be used to (re-)create the City table?
Select the best response.
A. DESCRIBE City
B. DESCRIBE TABLE City
C. SHOW TABLE City
D. SHOW CREATE TABLE City
Answer: D

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NO.6 The table Country contains the following rows:
+--------------------------+------------+
| Name | Population |
+--------------------------+------------+
| Nauru | 12000 |
| Turks and Caicos Islands | 17000 |
| Tuvalu | 12000 |
| Wallis and Futuna | 15000 |
+--------------------------+------------+
Which of the following statements will return all rows in the table, sorted by the value in the Population
column?
Select the best response.
A. SELECT Name, Population ASC
FROM Country
B. SELECT Name, ORDER BY Population
FROM Country
C. SELECT Name, Population
FROM Country
GROUP BY Population ASC
D. SELECT Name, Population
FROM Country
ORDER BY Population
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement can be used to list all columns in the City table?
Select the best response.
A. DISPLAY COLUMNS FROM City
B. SHOW COLUMNS FROM City
C. SHOW COLUMNS LIKE 'City'
D. SHOW City COLUMNS
Answer: B

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NO.8 In the context of database transactions, the atomicity property guarantees that...
Select the best response.
A. during a transaction, rows are processed one at a time.
B. all statements that are executed inside a transaction are immediately committed.
C. all statements that are executed inside a transaction are committed or rolled back as one unit.
D. other transactions cannot see the changes made in other ongoing uncommitted transactions.
Answer: C

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NO.9 A MySQL table has ...
Select the best response.
A. zero or more columns, and zero or more rows.
B. zero or more columns, and one or more rows.
C. one or more columns, and zero or more rows.
D. one or more columns, and one or more rows.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of the SQL WHERE clause?
In SQL statements, the WHERE clause specifies ...
Select the best response.
A. the tables from which data is to be retrieved.
B. a condition to filter for only specific rows.
C. a condition to filter for only specific groups defined by a GROUP BY clause.
D. a number to limit the number of rows that is operated upon by the statement.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C_TB1200_07
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Implementation Consultant SAP Business One 2007)
Questions et réponses: 152 Q&As

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NO.1 Sophie created a user-defined query and linked a template to it using the query print layout function.
After she designed the template she realized that she needs to add an additional column of data to the
report. Can Sophie add new columns to the existing report?
A.No. Since Sophie can only change static report information and cannot add database fields to the
matrix data, she must create a new query and assign it to a new print template.
B.No. Once Sophie has assigned the template to the query, she cannot make any changes to any field in
the report.
C.Yes. Sophie can add new columns to the report by creating a new database field in the repetitive area
of the linked template.
D.Yes. Sophie can create a new column in the template, and since it is linked to the query, it will update
the original template and the matrix data automatically.
Answer:A

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NO.2 Kathryn from Roses and Sunflowers gift shop creates a purchase order for an item, which is out of
stock. The current stock level for the item is zero. There are no open purchase orders or sales orders for
this item. After she has selected the item in the purchase order, she notices that there is a 4 in the
'Quantity' field. Why?
A.The value in the 'Items per Purchase Unit' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
B.The value in the 'Factor 2' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
C.The value in the 'Required (Purchasing UoM) Inventory Level' field is 4.
D.The value in the 'Quantity Per Packaging Unit' field on the 'Purchasing Data' tab is 4.
Answer:A B C D

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NO.3 I want to create a query to display all the invoices over $1500 issued for a specific customer by one of
my sales employees Sara Chang. How do I find which fields I should enter in the SQL query?
A.When you hold down the Ctrl key and click the mouse on a field you want to display, the table and field
name will appear at the bottom of the screen.
B.When you click the mouse on a field you want to display and choose View -> System information, the
table and field name will appear at the bottom of the screen in the Status Bar.
C.Open the Query Wizard because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query.
D.Use the Query Generator because it automatically enters the table and field names in the SQL query,
after you click the mouse on a field you want to display.
Answer:B

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NO.4 What are the advantages of query print layouts as opposed to standard queries?
A.You can adjust the template of the query print layouts.
B.You can add sub-sorts and sub-totals using the print layout designer.
C.Query print layouts can be based on several queries.
D.Authorization administration for query print layouts is simpler.
E.You can standardize your report layouts by using a customized base template, for example, with the
company logo, for all the reports.
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.5 You are reviewing the details of a user-defined query and notice the strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3]. What
is the function of these strings in a query?
A.The string [%0] is a variable used to create a query. Each variable is unique, so if more than one
variable is defined, each requires a unique name such as: [%1], [%2].
B.The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] represent fixed values in the query.
C.The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are conditions you can see displayed in the Conditions column in the
Query Generator.
D.The strings: [%1], [%2], and [%3] are fields from the OITM table which you can retrieve from either the
Query Generator or Query Wizard.
Answer:A

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NO.6 Our purchasing manager would like to see a weekly report that lists stock items that fall below a critical
point. What is the easiest way of doing this?
A.In the inventory data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level. Whenever employees post
a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, they need to send an email message to the
purchasing manager.
B.In the warehouse data of the item, enter the minimum required inventory level and activate the
predefined alert 'Minimum Stock Deviation' that will inform the purchasing manager whenever stock falls
below this threshold.
C.Create a query that lists all the items with inventory below the minimum level and link this query to a
user-defined alert. Specify the required frequency, click the checkbox to make the alert active, and make
sure you select the purchasing manager as the receiver.
D.In the document settings, set the 'When Attempting to Release Stock Below the Minimum Level'
indicator. Whenever an employee posts a goods issue that brings the stock below this threshold, the
purchasing manager automatically receives a message.
Answer:C

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NO.7 Which statements are correct regarding inventory valuation methods?
A.With moving average cost valuation, stock is valued by dividing the total value by the total quantity.
B.With moving average cost valuation, you must enter a cost price into the item master record.
C.With standard cost valuation, stock may need to be periodically revalued.
D.With first in - first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the oldest item.
E.With first in - first out valuation, stock is valued using the cost of the most recent item.
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.8 The following statements relate to the analysis of sales opportunities. Which statements are correct?
A.Use the Opportunity Statistics Report to analyze entered, open, and closed opportunities in the system.
B.To get an overview of the progress of all sales opportunities, use the Stage Analysis report.
C.The Opportunities Forecast Report only takes account of completed opportunities.
D.Open opportunities are not included in the Opportunity Pipeline analysis.
E.A sales manager can use selection criteria in "My Open Opportunities Report" to view sales
opportunites for any of his direct reports.
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.9 The sales manager at Gali Sport is confused by the different prices that can be related to a customer:
price lists and special prices. He needs to understand how the system calculates prices in sales
documents. Which answer below reflects the order in which the system looks for the correct price?
A.1) Special prices for the customer 2) Discount groups linked to the business partner 3) Period and
volume discounts defined for the price list and linked to the business partner 4) The price list specified in
the business partner master data
B.1) Discount groups 2) Special prices for the customer 3) Period and volume discounts for the price list
linked to the business partner 4) The default price list for the customer
C.1) The default price list for the document 2) Discount groups tied to the document 3) Special prices for
the customer
D.1) Customer special prices 2) Discount groups 3) Period and volume discounts defined for the price list
linked to the document 4) Price list defined for the document
Answer:A

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NO.10 PKJ Ltd maintains its price list automatically based on last purchase price. When PKJ sells a product,
they want to add their overhead of 40% to the sales price. How can they accomplish this?
A.Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list, select all the prices and increase
them by 40%.
B.Create a Customer price list and enter the sales prices.
C.Create a Customer price list based on the Last Purchase price list with a factor of 1.4.
D.In the business partner master data, select the Last Purchase price list and specify a premium of 40%.
Answer:C

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NO.11 I add a new Sales Opportunity for a business partner. I do not want to issue any documents to this
partner at the moment. However, I would like to link this opportunity to a Quotation that I issued for
another business partner in the past. Is this possible?
A.Access the sales opportunity and choose the Stages tab. Select 'Sales Quotation' as the document type,
then select a quotation from another business partner.
B.Access the sales opportunity and enter the code of the other business partner as the 'Partner'. You can
now link any quotation issued to that business partner to your opportunity.
C.You can only link activities directly to the sales opportunity.
D.You can only link a sales opportunity to a quotation for the same business partner.
Answer:A

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NO.12 What functions are available in the Human Resources module of SAP Business One?
A.Payroll processing
B.Shift planning
C.Employee master data
D.Recording and evaluation of absences
E.Tracking of employee costs and salaries
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.13 A company issues a large number of deliveries on a monthly basis. The company's sales manager
wants to know the fastest way to produce invoices based on these deliveries. What would you
recommend?
A.Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the target document and Deliveries as the
base document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
B.Use the Dunning Wizard. Select A/R Invoice as the document type. Use the posting date to select all
deliveries for the relevant month.
C.Use the Document Generation Wizard. Select A/R Invoices as the base document and Delivery as the
target document. Select all deliveries for the relevant month.
D.Use the Payment Wizard. Select Deliveries as the base document and A/R Invoice as the target
document. Use the posting date to select relevant deliveries.
Answer:A

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NO.14 Sophie created a query and now wants to print a report from the query. What must Sophie do before
she can print the query results?
A.Link her query to a base template using the Query Manager.
B.Link her query to a base template using the Print Layout Designer.
C.Link her query to a base template using the Query Print Layout tool.
D.Link her query to a base template using the Query Generator.
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which elements of a query are optional when you create a query with the Query Wizard?
A.Conditions
B.Table entries
C.Field entries
D.Grouping
E.Sorting
Answer:A B C D E

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NO.16 Every day my employees run a query to check how many orders we have issued on that day and what
their value was. I have created a simple query using the Orders table (ORDR): Document Number,
Document Date, Document Total Where Document Date EQUAL 01/05/07 (for example). How can I
create a "general" query so I do not have to go into this query statement every day to change the date in
the "Where" condition area?
A.Define a variable in the "Where" condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL '[%0]' then save
the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the desired date.
B.Delete the condition from the query. Create a general query that will display all the orders created in the
system to date. When the report displays, use the Sort Table to display the desired data.
C.Define a variable in the "Where" condition area of the formula: Document Date NOT EQUAL '[%0]' then
save the query. Each time you run it, the system will prompt you to enter the desired date.
D.Define a variable in the "Group By" condition area of the formula: Document Date EQUAL '[%3]' then
save the query.
Answer:A

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NO.17 The sales manager wants to be informed whenever a customer exceeds his credit limit. However, he
does not want the sales process to be blocked when he is not available. What do you recommend?
A.Activate and configure the predefined alert function 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales
manager gets informed automatically.
B.Activate and configure the predefined approval procedure 'Deviation from Credit Limit' so that the sales
manager gets informed automatically.
C.Restrict the general authorization to confirm credit line deviations to the sales manager.
D.Activate and configure a user-defined alert when a customer exceeds the credit limit. The alert goes to
each sales person and they can save the sales document as a draft.
Answer:A

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NO.18 For which of the following events is the moving average cost recalculated?
A.Stock entry.
B.Stock release.
C.Completion of a production order.
D.Purchase order submission.
Answer:A B C D

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NO.19 You want to show your customer which documents relate to each other in SAP Business One. Which
of these statements is correct?
A.When you display a document, you can use the base and target document icons to display a document
flow.
B.From the document, drill down to the business partner master data and choose Document Flow.
C.Use Drag Relate to display which documents are related to each other.
D.You can branch from the display of a document to its history. There you find a chronological list of all
base and target documents.
Answer:A

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NO.20 How is the available quantity calculated in SAP Business One?
A.Quantity in stock - quantity committed + quantity ordered.
B.Quantity in stock + quantity committed - quantity ordered.
C.Quantity in stock + quantity ordered.
D.Quantity in stock - quantity committed.
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: C_BOSUP_90
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Support Associate - Incident Management with SAP BusinessObjects)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 The customer has an error that can be reproduced on their system.
How do you proceed to investigate this issue?
A. The customer is no longer entitled to support since they have caused a fault in the system.
B. Ask the customer to use a different system since this installation is experiencing issues.
C. Ask the customer to document the workflow step by step so that you can attempt to reproduce the
issue on your internal system.
D. The customer's system has the fault therefore you only need to use their system for further
investigation and testing.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What type of reports can be produced with SAP EarlyWatch Alert?
A. Reports exclusively with graphics
B. Reports with animations
C. Reports with or without graphics
D. Reports exclusively without graphics
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is SAP EarlyWatch Check?
A. It is a fully automatically generated report.
B. It is a document that customers follow to check their platform.
C. It is a service delivered onsite.
D. It is a service delivered remotely.
Answer: D

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NO.4 As an SAP partner you have implemented SAP Solution Manager.
Which of the following statements reflects the requirements with regards to SAP Solution Manager
installation on the customer site?
A. Customers do not require their own SAP Solution Manager installation.
B. Customers require their own installation of SAP Solution Manager.
C. Customers and partner need to have SAP Solution Manager clustered.
D. Customers need to install SAP Solution Manager and the partner needs to connect to it.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What does Mission-Critical Support within SAP Enterprise Support include? (Choose two)
A. Ramp-up support
B. Robust Service Level Agreements (SLA)
C. 7 x 24 root cause analysis
D. SAP system backup
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 How can you find the Root Cause Analysis within SAP Solution Manager?
A. Use the appropriate work center transaction code.
B. Fill in the search box with keyword Root Cause Analysis.
C. Open a new application with default settings.
D. Use the left side menu.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What does priority in incident management mean?
A. It is an attribute of the customer's system.
B. It is an attribute that characterizes the urgency of an issue.
C. It is an attribute of the Service Desk.
D. It defines the importance of the customer for SAP.
Answer: B

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NO.8 If you want to add an SAP or non-SAP system to your landscape, which transaction do you need to
run?
A. SOLMAN_WORKCENTER
B. MSY_SETUP
C. SMSY_SETUP
D. SMSY
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is Product Support Hierarchy in SAP environment? (Choose two)
A. It is an instrument in organization and reporting within Product Support.
B. It defines the maintenance pricing level.
C. It is a view on the Application Component Hierarchy.
D. It is part of the Service Level Agreement.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 You receive a customer message where several issues are reported.
What will be your next step?
A. Ask the customer to create one message per issue.
B. Ask your colleagues for processing this message.
C. Solve all issues in the message, because it is beneficial for customers to report several issues in one
message.
D. Start message processing without contacting the customer.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What can the processor use in the Service Desk for message processing? (Choose two)
A. CRM_DNO_MONITOR transaction within SAP GUI
B. Transaction INCMAN
C. Business Process Monitoring Work Center
D. Incident Management Work Center
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 What is the Software Developer Network (SDN)?
A. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing information about code strategy for third
party products.
B. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing robust and complete information about
the underlying code of the SAP Product suite.
C. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a portal containing robust and complete collection of
content and collaboration dedicated to SAP technology.
D. The Software Developer Network (SDN) is a tool that is available only to the SAP developer team to
brainstorm solutions for code level issues.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is the characteristic of a system when defined as a subset of the installation in SAP systems.?
(Choose two)
A. A system corresponds to production, test AND development environment.
B. A system is identified using a system ID.
C. One system can be a child to multiple installations.
D. A system corresponds to either production, test OR development environment.
Answer: B,D

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NO.14 What characterizes On the Job Enablement sessions?
A. They are workshops coordinated by the Partner Services Adviser (PSA).
B. They are open workshops.
C. They are not available to Channel partners.
D. They are chargeable add-ons.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the recommended way to progress a message that is difficult to clarify?
A. Escalate the message immediately to a more senior support consultant.
B. Ask the client to provide screenshots and request information point by point.
C. Change the message status to Customer Action and tell the client that you cannot do much until more
information is provided.
D. Force the client to close the message and open a new one that is clearer.
Answer: B

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