2014年3月31日星期一

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-A17
Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Implementing Citrix XenDesktop 4)
Questions et réponses: 55 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator changed the settings on the Desktop Delivery Controller so that it uses an assigned
static IP address instead of DHCP.Which result,when verified by the administrator,shows that the change
has been made and ensures that the virtual machines can successfully register?
A. The firewall ports have been changed
B. The Farm GUID has been added to the registry
C. The DNS has been updated with the new IP address
D. The Desktop Delivery Controller Service has been restarted
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the role of the pool management service?
A. Clones virtual machines
B. Turns virtual machines on and off
C. Streams the virtual machine to the users
D. Assigns users to the correct virtual machine
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which component of the XenDeskop architecture has failed to communicate with the virtual desktop?
Which issue can the Profile Management feature address in a XenDesktop implementation?
A. Inability of users to stch between multiple profiles
B. Inability of settings to be saved against mandatory profiles
C. Profile bloat because extraneous files are copied to the profile
D. Printing failure because printer properties are not updated at each logon
Answer: C

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NO.4 An administrator needs to allow each help desk worker in an environment access to one virtual desktop
Which two types of devices should the administrator configure to allow each help desk worker to connect
to a virtual desktop? (Choose two)
A. Thin clients
B. Fat client devices
C. Remote computers
D. Repurposed computers
Answer: BD

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NO.5 A user needs to access a virtual desktop from a Macintosh laptop on the corporate network for the first
time Click the Task
button to place the steps to access the virtual desktop from a Macintosh laptop in the
correct order Click the Exhibit
button for instructions on how to complete a Drag and Drop item? What is
the correct order of steps to access the virtual desktop from a Macintosh laptop?
Answer:
1.Connect the Macintosh laptop to the corporate network
2 Connect to the internal Web Interface site
3 Enter the Web Interface user credentials
4 Download Desktop Receiver from the web interface
5 Automatically connect to the assigned desktop

NO.6 An administrator needs to configure pooled desktops for a large number of users and would like to
automate this process. To complete this task the administrator will need to use ___________ and
___________ (Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence)
A. XenServer
B. XenCenter
C. Provisioning Services
D. XenDesktop Setup Wizard
E. Delivery Services console
Answer: CD

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NO.7 A user is attempting to access a virtual desktop remotely Click the Task
button to place the steps in
the desktop delivery process in the correct order Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to
complete a Drag and Drop item? What is the correct order of steps in the desktop delivery process?
Answer:
1.The users logs on the web site
2 The desktop delivery controller determines which desktop to give to the user
3 The web site sends an ICA file to the Desktop Receiver
4 The Desktop Receiver initiates a connection to the Virtual Desktop Agent
5 The virtual desktop is presented to the user

NO.8 An administrator needs to configure existing hardware that will be repurposed to support connections to
virtual desktops. How should the administrator allow users to connect to their desktops in this
environment?
A. Using domain-joined Windows XP Embedded on a LAN and connecting through a XenDesktop
Ser4lces site to a virtual desktop in full-screen-only mode
B. Using a Windows XP device on a LAN and connecting through a XenDesktop Web site to a virtual
desktop with a Citrix Desktop Receiver window and a toolbar
C. Using a non-domain-joined Windows XP Embedded device on a LAN and connecting through a
Desktop Appliance Connector site to a virtual desktop in full-screen-only mode
D. Using a Windows XP device that connects remotely using Access Gateway through a XenDesktop
Web site to a virtual desktop with a Citrix Desktop Receiver window and a toolbar
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which component of the XenDesktop architecture uses Microsoft Active Directory,to find the controllers
that constitute a farm?
A. Desktop Receiver
B. Domain Controller
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Desktop Delivery Controller
Answer: C

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NO.10 Scenario: a user is attempting to access a virtual desktop The Web interface sent an .ICA file,but no
ICA. connection was established. Which component of the XenDeskop architecture has failed to
communicate with the virtual desktop?
A. Data Store
B. Desktop Receiver
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Desktop Delivery Controller
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-A20
Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Citrix XenApp 6.5 Administration )
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 Scenario: The administrator of a small XenApp server farm has configured end-to-end encryption
between the XenApp servers and user devices by setting up Access Gateway VPX. Session Reliability is
enabled in the farm with default settings.
Over which port will published applications be delivered.?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 1494
D. 2598
Answer: B

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NO.2 In order for an administrator to download a license from the company's mycitrix.com portal, the
administrator must be added _________.
A. as a Citrix Administrator in the AppCenter
B. into the contacts for the company in mycitrix.com
C. to the Purchasing Active Directory group in the company
D. as a Domain Administrator in the company's Active Directory
Answer: B

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NO.3 Scenario: A XenApp administrator must recommend a database option for the new XenApp 6.5 data
store. The new farm will have more than 100 XenApp servers and 500 published resources, support more
than 5,000 concurrent users and have two zones separated by a WAN connection.
Which two database options should be administrator recommend? (Choose two.)
A. IBM DB2 9.7
B. Oracle Enterprise 1.1
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
D. Microsoft SQL Server Express 2008
Answer: BC

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NO.4 Scenario: An administrator is creating a new XenApp farm. The farm will use hosted applications and
applications streamed using Microsoft App-V technology. Both Microsoft Windows and Apple OS X
computers are in use in the environment. Management requires an automated process to deliver all
necessary clients and plug-ins.
Which two components should the administrator use to automate the process of delivering and updating
client plug-in? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Group Policy
B. Citrix Receiver Updater
C. Citrix Merchandising Server
D. Apple Enterprise Management Software
Answer: BC

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NO.5 In building out a new XenApp environment, an administrator places the Secure Gateway and Web
Interface in the DMZ. What must the administrator do to secure the traffic to the XML Broker?
A. Change the XML traffic port to a non-standard assignment.
B. Use the SSL Relay tool to encrypt traffic to the XML Broker in the farm.
C. Place the XML Broker in the DMZ and encrypt the traffic between them.
D. Use encrypted ICA to communicate between the XML Broker and the Web Interface.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Scenario: An administrator manages a XenApp farm that uses Citrix Provisioning Services to automate
the addition of XenApp servers to the farm. The administrator must implement a solution to automate the
addition of new servers to the published resources, load evaluators, Citrix polices and load balancing
policies.
Which two should the administrator configure to meet the requirements of the scenario?
(Choose two.)
A. Zones
B. Policies
C. Worker group
D. Load evaluators
Answer: BC

Citrix   1Y0-A20   1Y0-A20   1Y0-A20

NO.7 An administrator needs to install a XenApp 6.5 server to act as an additional dedicated data collector.
After installing XenApp on the new server, the next step is to configure it by enabling the __________.
A. Session-host mode only
B. Controller and Session-host modes
C. data collector and XML Broker host mode
D. data collector and XTE Service host mode
Answer: B

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NO.8 Scenario: Users working from a remote branch office using XenApp are reporting that Flash content is
NOT displayed on an internal web page. Branch office users have NO direct connection to the internet.
Other Intranet sites are unaffected.
Which two steps could the administrator take to resolve the issue without impacting Flash performance?
(Choose two.)
A. Upgrading the Receiver client on the users PC to version 13.
B. Create a XenApp policy to enable Flash redirection for remote users.
C. Downgrade the version of Internet Explorer on the XenApp server to version 7.
D. Enable server-server content fetching policy on the client device using the supplied ADM file.
E. Add the URL of the intranet site to a Flash server-side content fetching URL list policy setting.
F. Uninstall the Flash player on the XenApp server, and install the 10.1 Flash player or later on the client.
Answer: DE

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NO.9 Which Citrix service should an administrator monitor when troubleshooting issues with Session
Reliability?
A. IMA
B. XML
C. XTE
D. MFCom
Answer: C

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NO.10 Scenario: An administrator has finished installing the first server in a new farm and is now creating the
data store. The farm will consist of five servers and needs to support about 50 users. The company wants
this installation to be as cost-effective as possible.
What is the best option for a database system that would support this farm effectively?
A. Microsoft Access
B. Microsoft SQL Server
C. Oracle Database System
D. Microsoft SQL Server Express
Answer: D

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NO.11 Scenario: An administrator needs to prepare a group of XenApp 6.5 servers for a scheduled
maintenance window. The servers need to accept connections from users that already have existing
sessions but disallow any new connections. The administrator also needs to ensure that the servers
remain in maintenance mode after the software updates are performed, which require multiple restarts.
Which setting can the administrator use from the AppCenter?
A. Prohibit logons only
B. Drain until next restart
C. Allow logons and reconnections
D. Prohibit logons until server restart
E. Prohibit logons and reconnections
Answer: A

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NO.12 Scenario: A farm contains six servers with one shared data collector that has a custom load balancing
policy to limit the number of connections. An administrator needs to add more users to the farm, which will
result in adding on four more servers for a total of 10. As most users in the farm use a CAD application,
the administrator understands that resource needs will increase.
Which step should the administrator take to maintain farm integrity?
A. Dedicate two new servers as data collectors and set them as Most Preferred in the election.
B. Dedicated one new server as the dedicated data collector and the current data collector as its backup.
C. Dedicate three new servers as shared data collectors and assign Most Preferred in the election panel.
D. Dedicate a new server as a second shared data collector and assign Most Preferred in the election
panel.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Users of a medical application are complaining of poor quality images when viewing X-ray scans. The
administrator should create a XenApp policy to _________.
A. enable image caching
B. set the Lossy Compression Level to None
C. set the Progressive Compression level to low
D. set the Heavyweight Compression level to Disabled
Answer: B

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NO.14 Scenario: The administrator of a XenApp Enterprise Edition server farm is configuration Single Sign-on
for the users of the farm. The Citrix license server was installed with the default vendor daemon and
console Web port numbers, but NOT the default license server port number.
Of the port numbers that are in use in the XenApp server farm, which one should the administrator specify
for the license server during Single Sign-on configuration?
A. 443
B. 7279
C. 8082
D. 27009
Answer: D

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NO.15 Scenario: A Citrix administrator manages a XenApp farm with 3,000 users. The users run the same set
of applications every day. Users complain that Application B takes a long time to launch after they exit
Application A. The administrator is required to implement a solution to speed up application launch.
What should the administrator do in order to ensure that users are able to launch Application B quickly
after they exit Application A?
A. Configure Session Linger
B. Set Linger Disconnect Time Interval to 0
C. Set Pre-launch Terminate Time Interval to 0
D. Create a Pre-launch session for Application B
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-400
Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Designing Citrix XenDesktop 7 Solutions Exam)
Questions et réponses: 200 Q&As

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NO.1 Given the current desktop build process, what should an architect recommend on the new
virtual platform for this environment while minimizing the number of required management servers?
A. Continue with current process
B. Use Ghost to clone a master image
C. Use Machine Creation Services to clone a master image
D. Use Provisioning Services servers to create a master target device
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two budgetary items should the architect consider to meet the needs of remote users
in the new environment? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft licenses
B. NetScaler infrastructure
C. Additional mobile devices
D. Two-factor authentication solution
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 An architect is assessing the existing backup strategy and recommending changes to suit the
new virtual desktop environment.
Which two critical components should the architect recommend for nightly backup, as they cannot
be easily recreated in the event of a disaster? (Choose two.)
A. User's Personal vDisks
B. Pooled desktop master image
C. Servers hosting StoreFront roles
D. Servers hosting Delivery Controller roles
E. SQL Server hosting the XenDesktop database
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 Which two business drivers are critical for the Contractors user group? (Choose two.)
A. Printing security
B. Secure remote access
C. Granular security policies
D. Support for mobile devices
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 The architect recommended pooled desktop OS machines with Personal vDisks for the Nurses,
Imaging, and Radiology user group.How should an engineer implement antivirus software on these
desktop OS machines?
A. Install the antivirus software into the base image.
B. Deploy the antivirus package as an App-V application.
C. Deploy the antivirus software through a Group Policy startup script.
D. Install the antivirus software in the master Personal vDisk as a user-installed application.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The company plans to reduce their storage requirement by using thin provisioning with
XenServer hosts. Which storage option should the architect verify for capability in the current
environment?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: A

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NO.7 Scenario: An architect is designing a NetScaler solution that implements GSLB. The solution
must provide StoreFront access through a single URL worldwide and maintain a highly available
configuration globally as well as locally.
How many StoreFront servers are recommended to implement this configuration?
A. Six, one site for each store
B. Six, two in each datacenter
C. Three, one in each datacenter
D. Four, two in the primary and two in the backup datacenter
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which consideration is unnecessary for the PositivelyPeople application in the new
environment?
A. File security
B. Secure remote access
C. Access to legacy mainframe
D. Support for secured print jobs
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which endpoint devices must be replaced to support the Streamed VHD method of desktop
delivery?
A. Windows 7
B. Windows XP
C. Linux thin clients
D. PCs running Internet Explorer 7
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two options should the architect recommend to enable two-factor authentication for
remote users? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Citrix Single Sign-On.
B. Configure LDAP authentication on NetScaler.
C. Configure RADIUS authentication on NetScaler.
D. Configure 'Username and Password' in StoreFront.
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 Scenario: Legacy GPO policies should NOT be applied to users in the new environment. New
GPOs should be configured to ensure maximum performance across all virtual applications and
desktops.
Which two actions should the architect recommend to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Enable loopback processing in Merge mode.
B. Enable loopback processing in Replace mode.
C. Apply the policy to the OUs containing the user accounts.
D. Apply the policy to the domain root with a WMI filter excluding the Windows XP OS type.
E. Apply the policy to the domain root with a deny ACL on the OU containing legacy machines.
F. Apply the policy to the OUs containing the desktop OS machines' and server OS machines'
computer accounts.
Answer: B,F

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NO.12 Contractors need a consistent environment to perform quality assurance testing of
applications.
Which two types of solutions should the architect recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Random server OS machines
B. Pooled desktop OS machines
C. Dedicated desktop OS machines
D. Pooled desktop OS machines with Personal vDisk
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Which three user groups require remote access? (Choose three.)
A. IT
B. Call Center
C. Human Resources
D. Emergency Response Team
E. Nurses, Imaging, and Radiology
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.14 Which current infrastructure limitation prevents doctors in London from working remotely if
the London datacenter shuts down unexpectedly?
A. There are no roaming user profiles.
B. There is no failover datacenter for London.
C. There are no backups of the SQL Server databases.
D. There is no disaster recovery plan for the mobile workforce.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Some management staff print large documents over WAN connections.
What must the architect consider to optimize printing to a local printer from laptops?
A. Configure session printers
B. Configure Universal Print Server
C. Disable 'Direct connection to print servers'
D. Allow mapping to all client printers to session
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 156-210
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point CCSA NG)
Questions et réponses: 241 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements about Client Authentication is FALSE?
A. In contrast to User Authentication that allows access per user. Client Authentication
allows access per IP address.
B. Client Authentication is more secure than User Authentication, because it allows
multiple users and connections from an authorized IP address or host.
C. Client Authentication enables Security Administrators to grant access privileges to a
specific IP address, after successful authentication.
D. Authentication is by user name and password, but it is the host machine (client) that is
granted access.
E. Client Authentication is not restricted to a limited set of protocols.
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-210   156-210

NO.2 Which of the following characteristics BEST describes the behaviour of Check Point
NG with Application Intelligence?
A. Traffic not expressly permitted is prohibited.
B. All traffic is expressly permitted by explicit rules.
C. Secure connections are authorized by default. Unsecured connectdions are not.
D. Traffic is filtered using controlled ports.
E. TELNET, HTTP; and SMTP are allowed by default.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210 examen   156-210

NO.3 What are the advantages of central licensing? Choose three.
A. Only the IP address of a SmartCenter Server is needed for all licences.
B. A central licence can be removed from one Enforcement Module, and installe don
another Enforcement Module.
C. Only the IP address of an Enforcement Module is needed for all licences.
D. A central license remains valid, when you change the IP address of an Enforcemente
Module.
E. A central license can be converted into a local license.
Answer: A, B, D

CheckPoint   certification 156-210   156-210   156-210   156-210 examen

NO.4 In the SmartView Tracker, what is the difference between the FireWall-1 and
VPN-1 queries? Choose three.
A. A VPN-1 query only displays encrypted and decrypted traffic.
B. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by rules, which have logging
activated.
C. A FireWall-1 query displays all traffic matched by all rules.
D. A FireWall-1 query also displays encryption and decryption information.
E. Implied rules, when logged, are viewed using the VPN-1 query.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.5 Which if the following components functions as the Internal Certificate Authority
for all modules in the VPN-1/FireWall-1 configuration?
A. Enforcement Module
B. INSPECT Engine
C. SmartCenter Server
D. SmartConsole
E. Policy Server
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210

NO.6 A security Administrator wants to review the number of packets accepted by each
of the Enforcement modules. Which of the following viewers is the BEST source for
viewing this information?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartMap
D. SmartView Status
E. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

CheckPoint   certification 156-210   156-210   156-210 examen   156-210

NO.7 You are the Security Administrator with one SmartCenter Server managing one
Enforcement Moduel. SmartView Status displayes a computer icon with an "I" in
the Status column. What does this mean?
A. You have entered the wrong password at SmartView Status login.
B. Secure Internal Communications (SIC) has not been established between the
SmartCenter Server and the Enforcement Module.
C. The SmartCenter Server cannot contact a gateway.
D. The VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Module has been compromised and is no longer
controlled by this SmartCenter Sever.
E. The Enforcement Module is installed and responding to status checks, but the status is
problematic.
Answer: E

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.8 You are a Security Administrator attempting to license a distributed
VPN-1/Firwall-1 configuration with three Enforcement Modules and one
SmartCenter Server. Which license type is the BEST for your deployemenet?
A. Discretionary
B. Remote
C. Central
D. Local
E. Mandatory
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-210 examen   156-210 examen   156-210 examen

NO.9 Which of the following locations is Static NAT processed by the Enforcement
Module on packets from an external source to an internal statically translated host?
Static NAT occurs.
A. After the inbound kernel, and before routing.
B. After the outbound kernel, and before routing.
C. After the inbound kernel, and aftter routing.
D. Before the inbound kernel, and after routing.
E. Before the outbound kernel, and before routing.
Answer: C

CheckPoint   certification 156-210   156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.10 You are a Security Administrator attempting to license a distributed
VPN-1/Firewall-1 configuration with three Enforcement Modules and one
SmartCenter Server. Which of the following must be considered when licensing the
deployment? Choose two.
A. Local licenses are IP specific.
B. A license can be installed and removed on a VPN-1/Firewall-1 version 4.1, using
SmartUpdate.
C. You must contact Check Point via E-mail or telephone to create a license for an
Enforcement Module.
D. Licenses cannot be installed through SmartUpdate.
E. Licenses are obtained through the Check Point User Center
Answer: A, E

CheckPoint examen   156-210   156-210

NO.11 What function does the Active mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It displays the active Security Policy.
B. It displays active Security Administrators currently logged into a SmartCenter Server.
C. It displays current active connections traversing Enforcement Modules.
D. It displays the current log file, as it is stored on a SmartCenter Server.
E. It displays only current connections between VPN-1/FireWall-1 modules.
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.12 Check Point's NG with Application Intelligence protects against Network and
Transport layer attacks by: (Choose two)
A. Preventing protocol-anomaly detection-
B. Allowing IP fragmentation-
C. Preventing validation of compliance to standards.
D. Preventing non-TCP denial-of-service attacks, and port scanning.
E. Preventing malicious manipulation of Network Layer protocols.
Answer: D, E

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-210   156-210

NO.13 Which critical files and directories need to be backed up? Choose three
A. $FWDIR/conf directory
B. rulebase_5_0.fws
C. objects_5_0.c
D. $CPDIR/temp directory
E. $FWDIR/state directory
Answer: A, B, C

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210

NO.14 Why is Application Layer particularly vulnerable to attacks? Choose three
A. Malicious Java, ActiveX, and VB Scripts can exploit host system simply by browsing.
B. The application Layer performs access-control and legitimate-use checks.
C. Defending against attacks at the Application Layer is more difficult, than at lower
layers of the OSI model.
D. The Application Layer does not perform unauthorized operations.
E. The application Layer supports many protocols.
Answer: A, C, E

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   156-210

NO.15 Network attacks attempt to exploit vulnerabilities in network applications, rather
than targeting firewalls directly.
What does this require of today's firewalls?
A. Firewalls should provide network-level protection, by inspecting packets all layers of
the OSI model.
B. Firewall should not inspect traffic below the Application Layer of the OSI model,
because such inspection is no longer relevant.
C. Firewalls should understand application behavior, to protect against application
attacks and hazards.
D. Firewalls should provide separate proxy processes for each application accessed
through the firewall.
E. Firewalls should be installed on all Web servers, behind organizations' intranet.
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-210 examen   156-210 examen   156-210 examen

NO.16 What function does the Audit mode of SmartView Tracker perform?
A. It tracks detailed information about packets traversing the Enforcement Modules.
B. It maintains a detailed log of problems with VPN-1/FireWall-1 services on the
SmartCenter Server.
C. It is used to maintain a record of the status of each Enforcement Module and
SmartCenter server.
D. It maintains a detailed record of status of each Enforcement Module and SmartCenter
Server.
E. It tracks changes and Security Policy installations, per Security Administrator,
performed in SmartDashboard.
Answer: E

CheckPoint   certification 156-210   156-210 examen

NO.17 You are a Security Administrator preparing to implement Hide NAT. You must
justify your decision. Which of the following statements justifies implementing a
Hide NAT solution? Choose two.
A. You have more internal hosts than public IP addresses
B. Your organization requires internal hosts, with RFC 1918-compliant addresses to be
assessable from the Internet.
C. Internally, your organization uses an RFC 1918-compliant addressing scheme.
D. Your organization does not allow internal hosts to access Internet resources
E. Internally, you have more public IP addresses than hosts.
Answer: A, C

CheckPoint   certification 156-210   certification 156-210

NO.18 Which of the following is NOT a security benefit of Check Point's Secure Internal
Communications (SIC)?
A. Generates VPN certificates for IKE clients.
B. Allows the Security Administrator to confirm that the Security Policy on an
Enforcement Module came from an authorized Management Server.
C. Confirms that a SmartConsole is authorized to connect a SmartCenter Server
D. Uses SSL for data encryption.
E. Maintains data privacy and integrity.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-210 examen   156-210

NO.19 The SmartDefense Storm Center Module agent receives the Dshield.org Block List,
and:
A. Populates CPDShield with blocked address ranges, every three hours.
B. Generates logs from rules tracking internal traffic.
C. Submits the number of authentication failures, and drops, rejects, and accepts.
D. Generates regular and compact log digest.
E. Populates the firewall daemon with log trails.
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-210   156-210   certification 156-210

NO.20 SmartUpdate CANNOT be used to:
A. Track installed versions of Check Point and OPSEC products.
B. Manage licenses centrally.
C. Update installed Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized
location.
D. Uninstall Check Point and OPSEC software remotely, from a centralized location.
E. Remotely install NG with Application Intelligence for the first time, on a new
machine.
Answer: E

CheckPoint examen   156-210 examen   certification 156-210

NO.21 You have created a rule that requires users to be authenticated, when connecting to
the Internet using HTTP. Which is the BEST authentication method for users who
must use specific computers for Internet access?
A. Client
B. Session
C. User
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-210 examen   156-210   certification 156-210   156-210

NO.22 Hidden (or masked) rules are used to:
A. Hide rules from administrators with lower privileges.
B. View only a few rules, without distraction of others.
C. Temporarily disable rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
D. Temporarily convert specifically defined rules to implied rules.
E. Delete rules, without having to reinstall the Security Policy.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-210   156-210 examen

NO.23 Once you have installed Secure Internal Communcations (SIC) for a host-node
object and issued a certificate for it. Which of the following can you perform?
Choose two.
A. Rename the object
B. Rename the certificate
C. Edit the object properties
D. Rest SIC
E. Edit the object type
Answer: A, C

CheckPoint   156-210   certification 156-210   156-210 examen

NO.24 Network topology exhibit
You want hide all localnet and DMZ hosts behind the Enforcemenet Module, except
for the HTTP Server (192.9.200.9). The HTTP Server will be providing public
services, and must be accessible from the Internet.
Select the two BEST Network Address Translation (NAT) solutions for this
scenario,
A. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.0.0
B. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for 192.9.200.0
C. Use automatic NAT rule creation to hide both DMZ and Local Network.
D. To hide Local Network addresses, set the address translation for privatenet.
E. Use automatic NAT rule creation, to statically translate the HTTP Server address.
Answer: C, E

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-210   156-210

NO.25 Which of the following are tasks performed by a VPN-1/FireWall-1 SmartCenter
Server? Choose three.
A. Examines all communications according to the Enterprise Security Policy.
B. Stores VPN-1/FirWall-1 logs.
C. Manages the User Database.
D. Replicates state tables for high availability.
E. Compiles the Rule Base into an enforceable Security Policy.
Answer: B, C, E

CheckPoint   certification 156-210   156-210   certification 156-210

NO.26 Which of the following suggestions regarding Security Policies will NOT improve
performance?
A. If most incoming connections are HTTP, but the rule that accepts HTTP at the bottom
of the Rule Base, before the Cleanup Rule
B. Use a network object, instead of multiple host-node objects.
C. Do not log unnecessary connections.
D. Keep the Rule Base simple.
E. Use IP address-range objects in rules, instead of a set of host-node objects.
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-210   156-210 examen   156-210 examen

NO.27 You are administering one SmartCenter Server that manages three Enforcement
Modules. One of the Enforcement Modules does not appear as a target in the Install
Policy screen, when you attempt to install the Security Policy. What is causing this
to happen?
A. The license for the Enforcement Module has expired.
B. The Enforcement Module requires a reboot.
C. The object representing the Enforcement Module was created as a Node->Gateway.
D. The Enforcement Module was not listed in the Install On column of its rule.
E. No Enforcement Module Master filer was created, designating the SmartCenter Server
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-210   156-210 examen   certification 156-210

NO.28 Which of the following statements about the General HTTP Worm Catcher is
FALSE?
A. The General HTTP Worm Catcher can detect only worms that are part of a URI.
B. Security Administrators can configure the type of notification that will take place, if a
worm is detected.
C. SmartDefense allows you to configure worm signatures, using regular expressions.
D. The General HTTP Worm Catcher's detection takes place in the kernel, and does not
require a Security Server.
E. Worm patterns cannot be imported from a file at this time.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-210 examen   156-210   certification 156-210   certification 156-210

NO.29 You are a Security Administrator preparing to implement an address translation
solution for Certkiller .com.
The solution you choose must meet the following requirements:
1. RFC 1918-compliant internal addresses must be translated to public, external
addresses when packets exit the Enforcement Module.
2. Public, external addresses must be translated to internal, RFC 1918-compliant
addresses when packets enter the Enforcement Module.
Which address translation solution BEST meets your requirements?
A. Hide NAT
B. The requirements cannot be met with any address translation solution.
C. Dynamic NAT
D. IP Pool Nat
E. Static NAT
Answer: E

CheckPoint   156-210 examen   certification 156-210   certification 156-210

NO.30 You are importing product data from modules, during a VPN-1/Firwall-1
Enforcement Module upgrade. Which of the following statements are true? Choose
two.
A. Upgrading a single Enforcement Module is recommended by Check Point, since there
is no chance of mismatch between installed product versions.
B. SmartUpdate queries license information, from the SmartConsole runging locally on the Enforcement
Module.
C. SmartUpdate queries the SmartCenter Server and Enforcement Module for product
information.
D. If SmartDashboard and all SmartConsoles must be open during input, otherwise the
product-data retrieval process will fail
Answer: A, C

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-210   156-210   156-210 examen   156-210

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Code d'Examen: 156-915.65
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Accelerated CCSE NGX R65 )
Questions et réponses: 204 Q&As

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NO.1 When configuring VPN High Availability (HA) with MEP, which of the following is correct?
A.The decision on which MEP Security Gateway to use is made on the remote gateway's side (non-MEP
side).
B.MEP Gateways must be managed by the same SmartCenter Server.
C.MEP VPN Gateways cannot be geographically separated machines.
D.If one Gateway fails, the synchronized connection fails over to another Gateway and the connection
continues.
Answer:A

CheckPoint   156-915.65 examen   certification 156-915.65

NO.2 Match the remote-access VPN Connection mode features with their descriptions:
A.A 3, B 4, C 2, D 1
B.A 2, B 3, C 4, D 1
C.A 2, B 4, C 3, D 1
D.A 1, B 3, C 4, D 2
Answer:B

certification CheckPoint   156-915.65   156-915.65   156-915.65

NO.3 How do you block some seldom-used FTP commands, such as CWD, and FIND from passing through
the Gateway?
A.Use FTP Security Server settings in SmartDefense.
B.Add the restricted commands to the aftpd.conf file in the SmartCenter Server.
C.Configure the restricted FTP commands in the Security Servers screen of the Global properties.
D.Enable FTP Bounce checking in SmartDefense.
Answer:A

CheckPoint examen   156-915.65 examen   156-915.65   156-915.65

NO.4 When a user selects to allow Hotspot, SecureClient modifies the Desktop Security Policy and/or Hub
Mode routing to enable Hotspot registration. Which of the following is NOT true concerning this
modification?
A.The modification is restricted by time.
B.The number of IP addresses accessed is not restricted.
C.IP addresses accessed during registration are recorded.
D.Ports accessed during registration are recorded.
Answer:B

certification CheckPoint   156-915.65   certification 156-915.65   certification 156-915.65

NO.5 When configuring numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) in a clustered environment, what issues
need to be considered? (1) Each member must have a unique source IP address (2) Every interface on
each member requires a unique IP address (3) All VTIs going to the same remote peer must have the
same name. (4) Custer IP addresses are required.
A.2 & 3
B.1, 3, & 4
C.1, 2, 3 & 4
D.1, 2, and 4
Answer:C

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-915.65   156-915.65

NO.6 Which command line interface utility allows the administrator to verify the name and timestamp of the
Security Policy currently installed on a firewall module?
A.fw ver
B.fw stat
C.fw ctl pstat
D.cpstat fwd
Answer:B

CheckPoint   156-915.65 examen   156-915.65 examen   156-915.65   156-915.65 examen

NO.7 Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you have
created an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Why?
A.Users must use the SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.
B.You have forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.
C.You checked the "cache password on desktop" option in Global Properties.
D.Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.
Answer:B

CheckPoint   156-915.65 examen   certification 156-915.65   156-915.65   156-915.65

NO.8 How do you recover communications between your SmartCenter Server and Security Gateway if you
"lock" yourself out via a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A.cpstop
B.fw unload policy
C.fw delete all.all
D.fw unloadlocal
Answer:D

CheckPoint   156-915.65   156-915.65 examen   certification 156-915.65

NO.9 Where do you enable popup alerts for SmartDefense settings that have detected suspicious activity?
A.In SmartView Monitor, select Tools > Alerts
B.In SmartView Tracker, select Tools > Custom Commands
C.In SmartDashboard, edit the Gateway object, select SmartDefense > Alerts
D.In SmartDashboard, select Global Properties > Log and Alert > Alert Commands
Answer:A

CheckPoint   156-915.65 examen   156-915.65 examen   156-915.65 examen   156-915.65

NO.10 You are reviewing the Security Administrator activity for a bank and comparing it to the change log.
How do you view Security Administrator activity?
A.SmartView Tracker in Active Mode
B.SmartView Tracker in Audit Mode
C.SmartView Tracker cannot display Security Administrator activity; instead, view the system logs on the
SmartCenter Server's Operating System.
D.SmartView Tracker in Log Mode
Answer:B

CheckPoint examen   156-915.65   156-915.65   156-915.65 examen   156-915.65

NO.11 Which Check Point product is used to create and save changes to a Log Consolidation Policy?
A.Eventia Reporter Client
B.SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
C.SmartCenter Server
D.Eventia Reporter Server
Answer:B

CheckPoint   156-915.65   156-915.65 examen   156-915.65   156-915.65

NO.12 Which operating system is not supported by SecureClient?
A.MacOS X
B.Windows XP SP2
C.Windows 2003 Professional
D.IPSO 3.9
Answer:D

CheckPoint   156-915.65   156-915.65   156-915.65   156-915.65   156-915.65 examen

NO.13 Where is it necessary to configure historical records in SmartView Monitor to generate Express reports
in Eventia Reporter?
A.In SmartDashboard, the SmartView Monitor page in the VPN-1 Security Gateway object
B.In Eventia Reporter, under Express > Network Activity
C.In Eventia Reporter, under Standard > Custom
D.In SmartView Monitor, under Global Properties > Log and Masters
Answer:A

CheckPoint   certification 156-915.65   156-915.65 examen

NO.14 Which of the following would NOT be a reason for beginning with a fresh installation of VPN-1 NGX R65,
instead of upgrading a previous version to VPN-1 NGX R65?
A.You see a more logical way to organize your rules and objects.
B.You want to keep your Check Point configuration.
C.Your Security Policy includes rules and objects whose purpose you do not know.
D.Objects and rules' naming conventions have changed over time.
Answer:B

CheckPoint   certification 156-915.65   156-915.65   156-915.65   156-915.65

NO.15 In ClusterXL, which of the following are defined by default as critical devices?
A.Security Policy status
B.fw.d
C.protect.exe
D.PROT_SRV.EXE
Answer:A

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-915.65   156-915.65

NO.16 A security audit has determined that your unpatched web application server is revealing the fact that it
accesses a SQL server. You believe that you have enabled the proper SmartDefense setting but would
like to verify this fact using SmartView Tracker. Which of the following entries confirms the proper blocking
of this leaked information to an attacker?
A."Fingerprint Scrambling: Changed [SQL] to [Perl]"
B."HTTP response spoofing: remove signature [SQL Server]"
C."Concealed HTTP response [SQL Server]. (Error Code WSE0160003)"
D."ASCII Only Response Header detected: SQL"
Answer:C

certification CheckPoint   156-915.65   156-915.65   156-915.65   certification 156-915.65

NO.17 Your online bookstore has customers connecting to a variety of Web servers to place or change orders,
and check order status. You ran penetration tests through the Security Gateway, to determine if the Web
servers were protected from a recent series of cross-site scripting attacks. The penetration testing
indicated the Web servers were still vulnerable. You have checked every box in the Web Intelligence tab,
and installed the Security Policy. What else might you do to reduce the vulnerability?
A.Configure the Security Gateway protecting the Web servers as a Web server.
B.Check the "Products > Web Server" box on the host node objects representing your Web servers.
C.Configure resource objects as Web servers, and use them in the rules allowing HTTP traffic to the Web
servers.
D.The penetration software you are using is malfunctioning and is reporting a false-positive.
Answer:C

CheckPoint   156-915.65   156-915.65 examen

NO.18 Match each of the following commands to their correct function. Each command only has one function
listed.
A.C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5
B.C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F2
C.C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5
D.C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4
Answer:A

CheckPoint   certification 156-915.65   certification 156-915.65

NO.19 When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into VPN-1 NGX R65?
A.User Name, Password, SmartCenter Server IP
B.User Name, SmartCenter Server IP, certificate fingerprint file
C.Password, SmartCenter Server IP, LDAP Server
D.Password, SmartCenter Server IP
Answer:B

CheckPoint examen   156-915.65   156-915.65 examen

NO.20 When upgrading to NGX R65, which Check Point products do not require a license upgrade to be
current?
A.None, all versions require a license upgrade
B.VPN-1 NGX (R64) and later
C.VPN-1 NGX (R60) and later
D.VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (R54) and later
Answer:C

CheckPoint   156-915.65   156-915.65   certification 156-915.65   156-915.65 examen

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Code d'Examen: 156-815.70
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert R70)
Questions et réponses: 182 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is TRUE about Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1?
A. Provider-1 encrypts all traffic among modules - so no firewall is necessary to protect the Provider-1
system.
B. The MDS Manager has a built-in firewall for the Provider-1 system, protecting the MDS Containers.
C. The added security of a firewall to protect the Provider-1 system is difficult to implement, and is not
recommended.
D. A separately managed Security Gateway is recommended to protect the Provider-1 environment.
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-815.70   certification 156-815.70   certification 156-815.70

NO.2 What directory is shared between MDS and CMA?
A. $FWDIR/log
B. $FWDIR/database
C. $FWDIR/bin
D. $FWDIR/conf
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-815.70   certification 156-815.70   156-815.70   156-815.70

NO.3 Which operating system listed supports running a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, but
has a limitation in the number of virtual IP addresses which can be assigned to a given interface?
A. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. SecurePlatform
D. Solaris
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-815.70   156-815.70   156-815.70 examen   156-815.70   certification 156-815.70

NO.4 A Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS is supported on which of the following platforms?
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, and 4
Answer: C

CheckPoint   certification 156-815.70   certification 156-815.70   156-815.70   156-815.70 examen

NO.5 Which of the following ports is used by CPMI to communicate between Multi-Domain Management
with Provider-1 modules?
A. TCP port 260
B. TCP port 264
C. TCP port 18191
D. TCP port 18190
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.70   156-815.70 examen   156-815.70

NO.6 Which one of the processes runs on the MDS Level?
A. fwm mds
B. fgd
C. iked
D. vpnd
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-815.70   156-815.70

NO.7 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. fwm.log
B. mds.error
C. mds.log
D. fwm.elg
Answer: C

certification CheckPoint   156-815.70   156-815.70 examen

NO.8 Upon boot, where is the script for the automatic start of the MDS processes located?
A. /etc/init.d
B. /var/init.d
C. etc/init.D
D. var/etc/init.d
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-815.70 examen   156-815.70   certification 156-815.70

NO.9 Which of the following are valid reasons for using Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 instead of
Management Servers?
A. 3 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 4
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.70   156-815.70   156-815.70 examen   156-815.70 examen   certification 156-815.70

NO.10 Communication between the MDG and the MDS is secured in what way?
A. IKE encryption using shared secret
B. Configurable third-party authentication mechanism
C. Username and Password authentication
D. SSL initiated using SIC certificate exchange
Answer: D

CheckPoint   certification 156-815.70   156-815.70 examen   certification 156-815.70   156-815.70 examen

NO.11 What is the name for the interface connecting CMA Virtual IPs?
A. Leading VIP Interface
B. VIP Lounge Interface
C. Main External Interface
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-815.70   156-815.70 examen

NO.12 What directory would you find all the configuration files related to the CMA "Customer_1"?
A. /opt/CPmds-R70/Customer_1/
B. /opt/CPmds-R70/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R70/conf
C. /opt/CPmds-R70/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R70/fw1/conf
D. /opt/CPmds-R70/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R70/
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-815.70 examen   156-815.70   156-815.70   156-815.70 examen

NO.13 When a NOC firewall separates the Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS machine and the
MDG (as shown below), what must be done to allow the MDG to connect to the MDS?
Modify the NOC Security Gateway Rule Base to allow:
A. RPC traffic for the MDG.
B. CPD and CPD_amon traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
C. UDP traffic for the MDG.
D. CPMI traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.70 examen   156-815.70   156-815.70

NO.14 When does a SIC certificate expire for CMA/MDS?
A. After 3 years
B. After 5 years
C. The interval is configurable.
D. After 1 year
Answer: B

CheckPoint   certification 156-815.70   156-815.70 examen   156-815.70

NO.15 On which SecurePlatform kernel version is Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 R70 built?
A. 2.4.18
B. 2.6.18-92
C. 2.4.21-21
D. RHEL 3
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-815.70   156-815.70   certification 156-815.70   certification 156-815.70

NO.16 Which of the following systems would meet the MINIMUM requirements for an MDS.?
A. SecurePlatform, 10 GB hard drive
B. SecurePlatform, 2-GB hard drive, 8 MB memory
C. Solaris 9, 4-GB hard drive, 1 GB memory
D. Linux RHEL 5, 2.4 kernel, 4-GB hard drive, 4-GB memory
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-815.70 examen   156-815.70   certification 156-815.70   156-815.70

NO.17 Where do the Global Policy database files reside in an MDS environment?
A. $CPDIR/conf
B. $MDSDIR/database
C. $MDSDIR/conf/mdsdb
D. $MDSDIR/conf
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   certification 156-815.70   156-815.70   certification 156-815.70   156-815.70

NO.18 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. $FWDIR/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
B. /var/opt/CPsuite-R70/fw1/log/mds.elg and /var/opt/CPmds-R70/log/mds.log
C. /var/opt/CPsuite-R70/fw1/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
D. $CPDIR/log/debug.elg
Answer: B

CheckPoint   certification 156-815.70   156-815.70   156-815.70   156-815.70   156-815.70

NO.19 What information can NOT be obtained from the mdsstat output?
A. Hostname of the MDS
B. Up / down status
C. IP address of the CMA
D. PID number FWD
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-815.70 examen   156-815.70

NO.20 All of the following can be configured on a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, EXCEPT:
A. Analyze logs
B. Firewall Module
C. Firewall Manager
D. Customer Logging Module
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-815.70   156-815.70

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Code d'Examen: 156-815.71
Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert R70)
Questions et réponses: 182 Q&As

156-815.71 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/156-815.71.html

NO.1 All of the following can be configured on a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, EXCEPT:
A. Analyze logs
B. Firewall Module
C. Firewall Manager
D. Customer Logging Module
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-815.71 examen   156-815.71

NO.2 On which SecurePlatform kernel version is Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 R71 built?
A. 2.4.18
B. 2.6.18-92
C. 2.4.21-21
D. RHEL 3
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-815.71   certification 156-815.71

NO.3 Which one of the processes runs on the MDS Level?
A. fwm mds
B. fgd
C. iked
D. vpnd
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-815.71   156-815.71   156-815.71 examen   certification 156-815.71

NO.4 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. fwm.log
B. mds.error
C. mds.log
D. fwm.elg
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-815.71 examen   156-815.71

NO.5 Where do the Global Policy database files reside in an MDS environment?
A. $CPDIR/conf
B. $MDSDIR/database
C. $MDSDIR/conf/mdsdb
D. $MDSDIR/conf
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.71   156-815.71   certification 156-815.71

NO.6 Which of the following systems would meet the MINIMUM requirements for an MDS.?
A. SecurePlatform, 10 GB hard drive
B. SecurePlatform, 2-GB hard drive, 8 MB memory
C. Solaris 9, 4-GB hard drive, 1 GB memory
D. Linux RHEL 5, 2.4 kernel, 4-GB hard drive, 4-GB memory
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-815.71   certification 156-815.71   156-815.71

NO.7 Which of the following statements is TRUE about Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1?
A. Provider-1 encrypts all traffic among modules - so no firewall is necessary to protect the Provider-1
system.
B. The MDS Manager has a built-in firewall for the Provider-1 system, protecting the MDS Containers.
C. The added security of a firewall to protect the Provider-1 system is difficult to implement, and is not
recommended.
D. A separately managed Security Gateway is recommended to protect the Provider-1 environment.
Answer: D

certification CheckPoint   156-815.71   156-815.71 examen   156-815.71

NO.8 What is the name for the interface connecting CMA Virtual IPs?
A. Leading VIP Interface
B. VIP Lounge Interface
C. Main External Interface
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-815.71   certification 156-815.71   156-815.71   156-815.71

NO.9 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. $FWDIR/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
B. /var/opt/CPsuite-R71/fw1/log/mds.elg and /var/opt/CPmds-R71/log/mds.log
C. /var/opt/CPsuite-R71/fw1/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
D. $CPDIR/log/debug.elg
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-815.71   156-815.71   156-815.71

NO.10 What directory is shared between MDS and CMA?
A. $FWDIR/log
B. $FWDIR/database
C. $FWDIR/bin
D. $FWDIR/conf
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-815.71 examen   156-815.71   156-815.71 examen   156-815.71 examen   156-815.71

NO.11 Which operating system listed supports running a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, but
has a limitation in the number of virtual IP addresses which can be assigned to a given interface?
A. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. SecurePlatform
D. Solaris
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.71   156-815.71   156-815.71

NO.12 Communication between the MDG and the MDS is secured in what way?
A. IKE encryption using shared secret
B. Configurable third-party authentication mechanism
C. Username and Password authentication
D. SSL initiated using SIC certificate exchange
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.71   156-815.71 examen   156-815.71   156-815.71

NO.13 When a NOC firewall separates the Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS machine and the
MDG (as shown below), what must be done to allow the MDG to connect to the MDS?
Modify the NOC Security Gateway Rule Base to allow:
A. RPC traffic for the MDG.
B. CPD and CPD_amon traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
C. UDP traffic for the MDG.
D. CPMI traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.71   156-815.71   certification 156-815.71

NO.14 What information can NOT be obtained from the mdsstat output?
A. Hostname of the MDS
B. Up / down status
C. IP address of the CMA
D. PID number FWD
Answer: A

CheckPoint examen   156-815.71   156-815.71   certification 156-815.71

NO.15 Which of the following ports is used by CPMI to communicate between Multi-Domain Management
with Provider-1 modules?
A. TCP port 260
B. TCP port 264
C. TCP port 18191
D. TCP port 18190
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-815.71 examen   certification 156-815.71

NO.16 When does a SIC certificate expire for CMA/MDS?
A. After 3 years
B. After 5 years
C. The interval is configurable.
D. After 1 year
Answer: B

certification CheckPoint   156-815.71   156-815.71   156-815.71   156-815.71

NO.17 Which of the following are valid reasons for using Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 instead of
Management Servers?
A. 3 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 4
Answer: D

CheckPoint examen   156-815.71   certification 156-815.71   certification 156-815.71

NO.18 A Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS is supported on which of the following platforms?
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, and 4
Answer: C

CheckPoint examen   156-815.71 examen   156-815.71   certification 156-815.71   certification 156-815.71

NO.19 What directory would you find all the configuration files related to the CMA "Customer_1"?
A. /opt/CPmds-R71/Customer_1/
B. /opt/CPmds-R71/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R71/conf
C. /opt/CPmds-R71/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R71/fw1/conf
D. /opt/CPmds-R71/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R71/
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   156-815.71 examen   156-815.71 examen

NO.20 Upon boot, where is the script for the automatic start of the MDS processes located?
A. /etc/init.d
B. /var/init.d
C. etc/init.D
D. var/etc/init.d
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-815.71   156-815.71   156-815.71

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