2014年4月30日星期三

Certification Oracle de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 1Z0-052, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-052
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Administrator I )
Questions et réponses: 205 Q&As

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NO.1 You have set Tablespace Full Metrics Threshold values for the USERS tablespace as follows:
Warning (%): 90
Critical (%): 95
Which background process is responsible for issuing alerts when the threshold is crossed?
A.System monitor (SMON)
B.Process monitor (PMON)
C.Memory manager process (MMAN)
D.Manageability Monitor process (MMON)
Answer: D

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NO.2 These are points that describe the contents of different memory components:
1. Descriptive information or metadata about schema objects that are queried by using SQL statements
2: The run-time area for data manipulation language (DML) or data definition language (DDL) statements
3: Results of SQL queries and PL/SQL functions
4: Executable forms of SQL cursors, PL/SQL programs, and Java classes
5: The information necessary to reconstruct changes made to the database by a transaction
Which of these will be stored in the Shared Pool if the necessary configurations are done?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 5
C.1, 3, and 4
D.3, 4, and 5
E.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which is the correct description of a pinned buffer in the database buffer cache?
A.The buffer is currently being accessed.
B.The buffer is empty and has not been used.
C.The contents of the buffer have changed and must be flushed to the disk by the DBWn process.
D.The buffer is a candidate for immediate aging out and its contents are synchronized with the block
contents on the disk.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two statements about the background process of the database writer are true? (Choose two.)
A.It is possible to have multiple database writers in an Oracle instance.
B.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a checkpoint occurs.
C.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a transaction commits.
D.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files before the log writer (LGWR) writes.
Answer: AB

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NO.5 You have issued a SHUTDOWN ABORT command to bring down your database instance. Consider
the steps that will be performed later when you open the database:
1. SGA is allocated.
2: Control file is read.
3: Redo log files are read.
4: Instance recovery is started.
5: Background processes are started.
6: Data files are checked for consistency.
7: Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read.
Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur?
A.7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4
B.1, 2, 3,7, 5, 6, 4
C.7, 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6
D.1, 7, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6
Answer: A

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NO.6 View the Exhibit and identify the component marked with a question mark.
A.Checkpoint (CKPT)
B.Process Monitor (PMON)
C.Archiver Processes (ARCn)
D.Recoverer Process (RECO)
E.Memory Manager process (MMAN)
Answer: A

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NO.7 Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for:
1. Session memory for the shared server
2: Buffers for I/O slaves
3: Oracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations
A.Large Pool
B.Redo Log Buffer
C.Database Buffer Cache
D.Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A

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NO.8 View the Exhibit and examine the privileges granted to the SL_REP user.
The EMP table is owned by the SCOTT user. The SL_REP user executes the following command:
SQL> GRANT SELECT ON scott.emp TO hr;
Which statement describes the outcome of the command?
A.The command executes successfully.
B.The command produces an error because the EMP table is owned by SCOTT.
C.The command produces an error because SL_REP has the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE without
ADMIN_OPTION.
D.The command produces an error because SL_REP does not have the SELECT privilege with
GRANT_OPTION on the EMP table.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Observe the information in the columns:
1. The SGAa. Text and parsed forms of all SQL statements
2: The cursor stateb. Run-time memory values for the SQL statement, such as rows retrieved
3: User-session datac. Security and resource usage information
4: The stack spaced. Local variables for the process
Which option has the correct match between the memory areas and their contents?
A.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
B.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
C.1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
D.1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
Answer: C

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NO.10 While observing the index statistics, you find that an index is highly fragmented, thereby resulting in
poor database performance. Which option would you use to reduce fragmentation without affecting the
users who are currently using the index?
A.Validate the index structure using the ANALYZE...INDEX command.
B.Rebuild the index using the ALTER INDEX..REBUILD ONLINE command.
C.Change the block space utilization parameters using the ALTER INDEX command.
D.Deallocate the unused space in the index using the ALTER INDEX..DEALLOCATE UNUSED command.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two statements are true about Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area? (Choose two.)
A.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the shared pool.
B.Shared SQL Area will be allocated when a session starts.
C.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the large pool always.
D.Private SQL Area will be allocated in the Program Global Area (PGA) always.
E.Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area will be allocated in the PGA or large pool.
F.The number of Private SQL Area allocations is dependent on the OPEN_CURSORS parameter.
Answer: AF

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NO.12 Which two statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose two.)
A.All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
B.The AWR contains systemwide tracing and logging information.
C.The snapshots collected by the AWR are accessible through data dictionary views.
D.The snapshots collected by the AWR are used by self-tuning components in the database.
Answer: CD

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NO.13 The database instance is currently using SPFILE. View the Exhibit and examine the error that you
received while running the DB Structure Integrity check.
Given below are the steps to recover from the error in random order:
1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
2: Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
3: Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of
the control files.
4: Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
5: Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.

NO.14 Open the database.
Identify the correct sequence of steps?
A.1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6
B.2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required
C.4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required
D.5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required
Answer: A

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6. Note the following points describing various utilities in Oracle Database 11g:
1. It enables the high-speed transfer of data from one database to another.
2: It provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database.
3: It enables the loading of data from an external file into an Oracle database.
4: It provides a tape backup management for the Oracle ecosystem.
Which point describes Oracle Secure Backup?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.1, 2, and 4
F.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

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NO.15 Your test database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode. Which statement is true regarding the type of
backups that can be performed on the database?
A.You can perform online whole database backups.
B.You can perform offline whole database backups.
C.You cannot perform schema-level export/import operations.
D.You can perform the backup of only the SYSTEM tablespace when the database is open.
Answer: B

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NO.16 View the Exhibit and examine the attributes of an undo tablespace.
In an OLTP system, the user SCOTT has started a query on a large table in the peak transactional hour
that performs bulk inserts. The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the
following error:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
What could be the reason for this error?
A.The query is unable to get a read-consistent image.
B.There is not enough space in Flash Recovery Area.
C.There is not enough free space in the flashback archive.
D.The query is unable to place data blocks in undo tablespace
Answer: A

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NO.17 Note the functionalities of various background processes:
1. Perform recovery at instance startup.
2: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
3: Cleanup the database buffer cache when a process fails.
4: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
5: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
6: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
7: Record the checkpoint information in control file.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Checkpoint (CKPT): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor (SMON): 1, 6
C.Process Monitor (PMON): 4, 6, 7
D.Database Writer (DBWR): 1, 3, 4
Answer: B

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NO.18 You have executed this command to change the size of the database buffer cache:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=2516582;
System altered.
To verify the change in size, you executed this command:
SQL> SHOW PARAMETER DB_CACHE_SIZE
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------- ----------- ------------------
db_cache_size big integer 4194304
Why is the value set to 4194304 and not to 2516582?
A.because 4194304 is the granule size
B.because 4194304 is the standard block size
C.because 4194304 is the largest nonstandard block size defined in the database
D.because 4194304 is the total size of data already available in the database buffer cache
Answer: A

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NO.19 Examine the following statement that is used to modify the constraint on the SALES table:
SQL> ALTER TABLE SALES MODIFY CONSTRAINT pk DISABLE VALIDATE;
Which three statements are true regarding the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The constraint remains valid.
B.The index on the constraint is dropped.
C.It allows the loading of data into the table using SQL *Loader.
D.New data conforms to the constraint, but existing data is not checked.
E.It allows the data manipulation on the table using INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE SQL statements.
Answer: ABC

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NO.20 Note the following functionalities of various background processes:
1. Record the checkpoint information in data file headers.
2: Perform recovery at instance startup.
3: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
4: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
5: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
6: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Archiver Process (ARCn): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor Process (SMON): 1, 4, 5
C.Process Monitor Process (PMON): 4, 5, 6
D.Database Writer Process (DBWn): 1, 3, 4
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-054
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Performance Tuning)
Questions et réponses: 192 Q&As

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NO.1 You plan to use adaptive thresholds as part of the performance tuning activity. You decide to increase
the window size of the default moving window baseline for all metric observations and comparisons in
your database. The following error occurs when you try to increase the window size through Enterprise
Manager:
Failed to commit: ORA-13541: system moving window baseline size (1296000) greater than retention
(1036800) ORA-06512: at "SYS.DBMS_WORKLOAD_REPOSITORY", line 601 ORA-06512: at line 2
Which action would allow you to perform the preceding task successfully?
A. increasing the flashback retention period
B. increasing the retention period for SQL Management Base
C. increasing the undo retention period for the database instance
D. increasing the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) retention period
ANSWER: D

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NO.2 Examine the initialization parameter values for the instance given below:
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------------------------ ----------- ------------------
optimizer_capture_sql_plan_baselines boolean FALSE
optimizer_dynamic_sampling integer 2
optimizer_features_enable string 11.1.0.6
optimizer_index_caching integer 0
optimizer_index_cost_adj integer 100
optimizer_mode string ALL_ROWS
db_file_multiblock_read_count integer 64
You notice that the one of the queries is using a full table scan (view Exhibit1) instead of index unique
scan (view Exhibit2). The index is present on the column that is accessed in the WHERE clause of the
query. The cost for a full table scan is more than that for an index unique scan.
Why would the optimizer choose full table scan over index unique scan? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The OPTIMIZER_INDEX_COST_ADJ initialization parameter is set to a low value.
B. The OPTIMIZER_INDEX_COST_ADJ initialization parameter is set to a high value.
C. The DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a low value.
D. The statistics for the table and all the indexes associated with the table are not current.
ANSWER: BD

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NO.3 View the Exhibit exhibit1 to examine the series of SQL commands and parameter settings.
View the Exhibit exhibit2 to examine the plans available in the SQL plan baseline.
The first plan (in red) is created when OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to ALL_ROWS and the second plan (in
blue) is created when OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to FIRST_ROWS.
Which SQL plan baseline would be used if the SQL query in exhibit1 is executed again when the value of
OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to FIRST_ROWS?
A. the second plan, because it is a fixed plan
B. the first plan, because it is an accepted plan
C. the second plan, because it is the latest generated plan in FIRST_ROW mode
D. A new plan, because the second plan in FIRST_ROW mode is not an accepted plan
ANSWER: B

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NO.4 View Exhibit1 and examine the indexes on the CUSTOMERS table.
The statistics for the CUSTOMERS table have been updated recently by using the following command:
SQL> EXEC DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS('SH','CUSTOMERS',method_opt=>'FOR ALL
INDEXED COLUMNS SIZE AUTO');
View Exhibit2 to examine a query plan. Even though the index is present on the COUNTRY_ID and
CUST_GENDER columns, the query uses a full table scan. What could be the reason?
A. because the histogram statistics for the COUNTRY_ID column are not updated
B. because the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a high value
C. because the optimizer calculates the cost of accessing blocks by using a full table scan to be less as
compared to index scans, even though indexes are available
D. because indexes on CUST_GENDER and COUNTRY_ID columns are of different types, the index on
the CUST_GENDER column is bitmap index, and on COUNTRY_ID columns is btree index.
ANSWER: C

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NO.5 View Exhibit1 to examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table.
The CUSTOMERS table has been updated heavily today. In a frequently used SQL statement, you notice
that estimated rows and the actual number of rows fetched differ greatly. The COUNTRY_ID column has
an index.
View Exhibit2 and examine the query execution plan.
What would you recommend to improve the optimizer's estimation?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to ALL
B. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE
C. creating extended statistics for the CUST_LAST_NAME, CUST_ID, and CUST_TOTAL columns
D. updating the statistics for the CUSTOMERS table by using the
DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS
procedure
ANSWER: D

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NO.6 The columns CUST_CITY, CUST_STATE_PROVINCE, and COUNTRY_ID are frequently used
together in the WHERE clause of the queries. The CUSTOMERS table is a big table with 20 GB of data.
You notice that the selectivity for these three columns varies from the selectivity that the optimizer
calculates.
What would you recommend to influence the selectivity calculated by the optimizer?
A. creating function-based indexes by concatenating all the columns
B. updating histogram statistics for these columns by using the DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS
procedure
C. using the DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function to create a virtual column and create
index on the virtual column
D. using the DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function to create a virtual column and the
DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS procedure to collect statistics on the virtual column
ANSWER: D

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NO.7 View Exhibit1 to examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table.
You observed that optimizer selectivity is not accurate when the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and
COUNTRY_ID columns are used together in the WHERE clause of a query.
View Exhibit2 to examine the query execution plan and the commands executed to gather the statistics.
The optimizer predicts that 20 rows will be processed rather than the 3,341 rows, which is the actual
number of rows returned from the table.
What can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual number of rows?
A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to ALL.
B. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE.
C. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns.
D. Increase the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS table by using the
DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS procedure.
ANSWER: C

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NO.8 A batch workload that historically completed in the maintenance window between 10:00 PM and
midnight is currently showing poor performance and completing at 2 AM.
To help in the diagnosis of the performance degradation, the senior DBA in your organization asks you to
execute the awrddrpt.sql script to produce a Compare Periods report.
Which two statements are true about the report produced by this script? (Choose two.)
A. It is refreshed automatically based on the moving window baseline.
B. It compares details between any two selected time periods of the same duration.
C. It normalizes the statistics by the amount of time spent on the database for each time period.
D. It compares details between two consecutive time periods of the same or different durations and is
refreshed every 60 minutes.
ANSWER: BC

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NO.9 Which three factors influence the optimizer's behavior while choosing an optimization approach and
goal for a SQL statement? (Choose three.)
A.parsing of a SQL statement
B.operating system (OS) statistics
C.object statistics in the data dictionary
D.the OPTIMIZER_MODE initialization parameter
E.optimizer SQL hints for changing the query optimizer goal
ANSWER: CDE

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NO.10 View the Exhibit and examine a portion of the output obtained from the following query:
SQL> SELECT * FROM v$sys_time_model;
Select three correct interpretations of the time model statistics. (Choose three.)
A. DB time includes the wait time of all the nonidle and idle user sessions.
B. SQL execute elapsed time includes the time spent in performing fetches of query results.
C. DB CPU includes the CPU time spent on database user-level calls and background CPU time.
D. SQL execute elapsed time includes components of the hard parse elapsed time like bind elapsed time.
E. DB time includes the connection management call elapsed time excluding the background process
time.
ANSWER: BDE

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NO.11 You observed that some of the queries are performing poorly on the SALES_RECORDS table in your
database.
On further investigation, you find that at the end of each day the contents of the SALES_RECORDS table
are transferred to the SALES table and deleted from the SALES_RECORDS table. The deleted
operations cause the table to be sparsely populated.
You decided to use the ALTER TABLE...SHRINK SPACE COMPACT command to shrink the table.
Why would you choose this method? (Choose all that apply.)
A. because it can be used during peak hours
B. because it avoids unnecessary cursor invalidation
C. because it adjusts the high-water mark (HWM) immediately
D. because you have long-running queries that might span the shrink operation
E. because it does not allow any data manipulation language (DML) operations, thereby making the
shrink
operation faster
ANSWER: ABD

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NO.12 You are working on a decision support system (DSS). The index is available on the COUNTRY_ID
column of the CUSTOMERS table.
View the Exhibit and examine the parameter settings and the query execution plan.
Why is the query using a full table scan instead of an index scan?
A. because the histogram statistics for the COUNTRY_ID column are not updated
B. because the index statistics for the index on the COUNTRY_ID column are not current
C. because the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a higher value
D. because the optimizer predicts that most of the blocks in the table are accessed. Therefore, it uses a
full table scan, even though indexes are available.
ANSWER: D

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NO.13 You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. By day most of the application
users perform queries accessing the most recently added or modified rows. The applications have most
of the queries based on multiple tables. But at night, some batch processing is also done.
Which two actions would you recommend to choose a goal for the optimizer based on the needs of your
application? (Choose two.)
A.setting the OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter to ALL_ROWS at the instance level
B.setting the OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter to FIRST_ROWS_n at the instance level
C.asking the developer to add a hint /*ALL_ROWS*/ in the long-running batch processing queries
D.asking the developer to add a hint /*FIRST_ROWS_n*/ in the long-running batch processing queries
ANSWER: BC

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NO.14 You are working on a development database that was upgraded to Oracle Database 11g from Oracle
Database 9i. An ADDM finding in this database says that the shared pool is inadequately sized, as shown
in the Exhibit.
You diagnosed that this is due to different kinds of workloads and this occurs only during peak hours. You
tried to resize this by shrinking the database buffer cache but that caused inadequate buffer cache
problems. The following are the related parameter settings:
SQL> show parameter sga
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------------------ --------------- -----------------
lock_sga boolean FALSE
pre_page_sga boolean FALSE
sga_max_size big integer 300M
sga_target big integer 0
SQL> show parameter target
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------------------ --------------- -----------------
.....
fast_start_mttr_target integer 0
memory_max_target big integer 0
memory_target big integer 0
pga_aggregate_target big integer 100M
sga_target big integer 0
You want to balance the memory between the System Global Area (SGA) components within SGA
without affecting the size of the Program Global Area (PGA).
Which action would solve this problem?
A. Set the SGA_TARGET parameter to 300M.
B. Set the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter to 400M.
C. Set the MEMORY_TARGET parameter to 100M.
D. Set the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter to 300M.
ANSWER: A

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NO.15 Examine the initialization parameter values for the instance given below:
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------------------------ ----------- ------------------
optimizer_capture_sql_plan_baselines boolean FALSE
optimizer_dynamic_sampling integer 2
optimizer_features_enable string 11.1.0.6
optimizer_index_caching integer 0
optimizer_index_cost_adj integer 100
optimizer_mode string ALL_ROWS
db_file_multiblock_read_count integer 64
The index created on the column used in the WHERE clause of the query. You notice that the query is not
using the index. Instead of an index scan, a full table scan is used.
View the Exhibit and examine the autotrace output for a query.
What could be the reason for it? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The OPTIMIZER_INDEX_COST_ADJ initialization parameter has a low value.
B. The DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter has a low value.
C. The statistics for the table and all the indexes associated with the table are not current.
D. The table has less than DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT blocks under the high-water mark.
ANSWER: CD

Oracle examen   1Z0-054   1Z0-054   certification 1Z0-054

NO.16 A user in a session executed the following SQL statement to set the optimizer mode:
ALTER SESSION SET OPTIMIZER_MODE = ALL_ROWS
What impact would it have on the goal of the optimizer for that session? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Statement level OPTIMIZER_MODE hints take precedence over the session-level setting.
B. The OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter set at instance level takes precedence over the session-level
value.
C. The optimizer uses a cost-based approach, regardless of the presence of statistics; it optimizes with a
goal of best response time.
D. The optimizer uses a cost-based approach for all SQL statements in the session, regardless of the
presence of statistics; it optimizes with a goal of best throughput.
ANSWER: AD

Oracle   1Z0-054 examen   1Z0-054   1Z0-054 examen

NO.17 Identify two correct statements about the Active Session History (ASH) data. (Choose two.)
A.A part of SGA memory is used to store ASH data as rolling buffer.
B.The ASH data can be analyzed between any two small time intervals.
C.All ASH data in memory are flushed to disk by MMON in every 3 seconds.
D.All ASH data in memory are flushed to disk by MMNL process whenever the buffer is full.
ANSWER: AB

Oracle   1Z0-054 examen   1Z0-054   1Z0-054

NO.18 You work as a DBA for a company and you have the responsibility of managing one of its online
transaction processing (OLTP) systems. The database encountered performance-related problems and
you generated an Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report to investigate it further.
View the Exhibits and examine the AWR report.
What could be the problem in this database?
A.Java pool is not configured.
B.The CPU in the system is slow.
C.The shared pool size is inadequate.
D.The database buffer cache is inadequate.
E.The OPEN_CURSORS parameter is set to a small value.
ANSWER: C

Oracle   1Z0-054 examen   certification 1Z0-054

NO.19 After running SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA), you observe a few regressed SQL statements in the
SPA output. Identify the two actions that you would suggest for these regressed SQL statements.
(Choose two.)
A.Running SQL Access Advisor
B.Adding them to SQL Plan Baseline
C.Submitting them to SQL Tuning Advisor
D.Running Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
ANSWER: BC

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-054   1Z0-054 examen   1Z0-054   1Z0-054

NO.20 You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You detected free buffer waits
events for your database instance running in a machine that has multiple CPUs. You increased the
database buffer cache size as the first step. After a few hours of work on the database, further
investigation shows that the same event is being recorded.
What would be your next step to avoid this event in future?
A. Decrease the value of the DBWR_IO_SLAVES parameter.
B. Set the USE_INDIRECT_DATA_BUFFERS parameter to TRUE.
C. Increase the value of the DB_WRITER_PROCESSES parameter.
D. Increase the value of the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter.
ANSWER: C

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-218
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (PeopleSoft HRMS Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

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NO.1 PeopleSoft HCM 9.0 has several pages where you can access the Add a Person component.
Identify four components that have an option to Add a Person. (Choose four.)
A. Job Data
B. Other Payee
C. Add a Person
D. Manage Hires
E. Modify a Person
F. Add Employment Instance
Answer: BCDE

Oracle   1Z0-218   1Z0-218   1Z0-218

NO.2 After inputting a department in Job Data, which four additional fields could be populated based on the
defaults defined on the Department table? (Choose four.)
A. Location
B. Company
C. Paygroup
D. Tax Location
E. Business Unit
F. Supervisor ID
G. Establishment ID
Answer: ABDF

Oracle   1Z0-218   1Z0-218   certification 1Z0-218   1Z0-218 examen

NO.3 Which four components can be used to add a job instance for a person in PeopleSoft HCM 9.0?
(Choose four.)
A. Manage Hires
B. Modify a Person
C. Add Employment Instance
D. Add Person of Interest Job
E. Add Contingent Worker Instance
Answer: ACDE

Oracle   certification 1Z0-218   1Z0-218   certification 1Z0-218   1Z0-218 examen

NO.4 Identify the three types of organizational relationships that PeopleSoft HCM 9.0 has. (Choose three.)
A. Trustee
B. Employee
C. Contractor
D. Board Member
E. Person of Interest
F. Contingent Worker
G. Global Payroll Employee
Answer: BEF

Oracle   1Z0-218   certification 1Z0-218

NO.5 You are at your client site working on PeopleSoft HRMS implementation. One of your tasks is to add
systemwide defaults in order to save time when a user is entering information in transaction tables.
Identify which field is NOT a default option in the Org Default by Permission List component.
A. SetID
B. Country
C. Company
D. To Currency
E. Business Unit
F. Compensation Frequency
Answer: F

certification Oracle   certification 1Z0-218   1Z0-218   1Z0-218   certification 1Z0-218   1Z0-218

NO.6 On the Job Data Work Location tab for a new hire, Company is a required field.
You can default Company from the _____ table.
A. Location
B. Job Code
C. Position Data
D. Business Unit
E. Holiday Schedule
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-218   certification 1Z0-218   1Z0-218   1Z0-218 examen

NO.7 What should you do when system performance is affected and you no longer want to maintain all
employee records on the Job table?
A. Purge employee data from the system.
B. Use PeopleCode to hide data on the Job Data page.
C. Access the Job Data page in Correct History mode and change the status to Inactive.
D. Insert a new effective dated row on the Job Data page and change the status to Inactive.
E. Change the description field on the Job Data page to state that this row is no longer active.
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z0-218   1Z0-218 examen   1Z0-218   1Z0-218   1Z0-218

NO.8 Which default value do the Job Code table and Location table have in common?
A. Salary Plan
B. Work Period
C. Tax Location
D. Standard Hours
E. Establishment ID
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-218   certification 1Z0-218   1Z0-218

NO.9 Which three statements describe the benefits of using tableset sharing in the PeopleSoft system?
(Choose three.)
A. Tableset sharing uses SetID to restrict or grant access to data within a table.
B. Tableset sharing allows organizations to track and report business information.
C. Tableset sharing enables organizations to group rows of data within a control table by using a
high-level key called a SetID.
D. Tableset sharing uses Department ID in conjunction with department security tree to restrict or grant
access to data within a table.
E. Tableset sharing enables organizations to utilize indexing capabilities on mapped records for faster
search results on employee data.
F. Tableset sharing enables organizations to share information instead of entering it multiple times, when
large portions of data are the same for various business units.
Answer: ACF

Oracle   1Z0-218   certification 1Z0-218   certification 1Z0-218

NO.10 On the Add a Person page in PeopleSoft HCM 9.0, you can input all information about a person
EXCEPT for these four details: _____. (Choose four.)
A. Ethnic Group
B. Bank Account
C. Military Status
D. Badge Number
E. Smoker History
F. Emergency Contact
G. Driver License Number
Answer: BDFG

certification Oracle   1Z0-218   1Z0-218 examen

NO.11 Using a Permission List associated with a user and identifying security sets and access types in the
Security by Permission List component of PeopleSoft are known as _____.
A. Role-based data permission security
B. Tree-based data permission security
C. Group-based data permission security
D. Country-based data permission security
E. PeopleCode-based data permission security
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-218   1Z0-218   1Z0-218 examen   1Z0-218   certification 1Z0-218

NO.12 Your client has North American Payroll and Global Payroll. When adding an employment instance for
a new hire, your client selects a payroll system to use for processing the employee's payroll. Depending
on which payroll system is selected, the input field names displayed would differ on the Payroll page
except for two field names.
Identify the two field names that are displayed on the Payroll page for both payroll systems. (Choose two.)
A. Paygroup
B. GL Pay Type
C. Eligibility Group
D. Employee Type
E. Holiday Schedule
F. Exchange Rate Type
Answer: AE

Oracle   certification 1Z0-218   1Z0-218   certification 1Z0-218

NO.13 View the Exhibits.
Your client wants to set up a new department called ABC Headquarter for their newly acquired company
ABC. The client shares the department and location information cross all business units.
The HR Administrator has checked that the location code ABCHQ showed up under the Location Table
Search Result page under SetID "Share". However, when she tried to attach this location code to the new
department she is trying to create, she got the error message.
Which two setups may have caused the error message to be displayed? (Choose two.)
A. The Location SetID may not be valid for this department.
B. The Department may have an earlier Effective Date than the Location.
C. The Location and the Department may not belong to the same Business Unit.
D. The Location may have been inactivated before the Department's Effective Date.
E. The Location may not be associated with the proper company that the department is attached to.
F. The TableSet Control table may not be set up correctly for the Record_Group Location and the
Record_Group Department.
Answer: BD

Oracle examen   1Z0-218 examen   certification 1Z0-218   1Z0-218   certification 1Z0-218   certification 1Z0-218

NO.14 Which PeopleSoft table do you use to identify a group of employees who share common pay
characteristics?
A. Job Code Table
B. Company Table
C. Pay Group Table
D. Salary Plan Table
E. Salary Grade Tables
F. Comp Rate Code Table
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-218 examen   certification 1Z0-218   1Z0-218 examen   1Z0-218 examen

NO.15 Adam is entering new hire information in the PeopleSoft system. Adam enters the new hire personal
information and creates the organizational relationship of the new hire as EMPLOYEE. After Adam
establishes the new hire's relationship with the organization, the system opens the JOB DATA page for
Adam to enter the new hires job-related information.
Adam decides to complete the new hires job-related information after his lunch break and cancels out of
the JOB DATA page.
What must be Adam's approach to successfully complete the new hire's job-related information in the
PeopleSoft system after his break?
A. Enter job-related information using Job Data component.
B. Complete both personal information and job information at the same time.
C. Enter job-related information using the Add Employment Instance component.
D. Run SJT refresh process first and then enter job-related information using Job Data component.
E. Run SJT refresh process first and then enter job-related information using the Add Employment
Instance component.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-218 examen   certification 1Z0-218   1Z0-218 examen

NO.16 Your organization has decided to implement row-level security. You suggested securing data by
associating the company with people having jobs. This method of securing data is known as _____.
A. Access Type / Role
B. Permission List / Role
C. Security set / Access Type
D. Security set / Permission List
E. Permission List / User Profile
F. Access Type / Permission List
Answer: C

certification Oracle   1Z0-218   certification 1Z0-218   1Z0-218

NO.17 Your client is using PeopleSoft HCM 9.0. It wants to pay some of its existing Persons of Interest
(POIs).
Which page in PeopleSoft do they use to set up their POIs for payment?
A. Job Data
B. Other Payee
C. Modify a Person
D. Add a POI Relationship
E. Maintain a Person's POI Reltn
Answer: B

certification Oracle   1Z0-218 examen   1Z0-218

NO.18 Which three fields default from the Department table to the employee job data level? (Choose three.)
A. Grade
B. Location
C. Company
D. Pay Group
E. Business Unit
F. Supervisor ID
G. Employee Type
Answer: BCF

certification Oracle   1Z0-218 examen   certification 1Z0-218   1Z0-218 examen

NO.19 Your client is implementing PeopleSoft HRMS system with Payroll Interface. The client is to start
configuring Pay Group table.
What table value should exist in the system before configuring Pay Groups?
A. Location
B. Company
C. Salary Plan
D. Salary Step
E. Salary Grade
F. Additional Pay
Answer: B

Oracle   certification 1Z0-218   1Z0-218   1Z0-218 examen   1Z0-218

NO.20 Your organization has decided to use a department security tree for Row-Level security in PeopleSoft
HRMS system.
You decided to use the XYZ permission list to secure data using the Security by Department Tree
component.
Which step do you need to perform to ensure that Row-Level security is enforced?
A. Add the XYZ permission list to User Profile.
B. Add the XYZ permission list to Security Set.
C. Add the XYZ permission list to Tree Manager.
D. Add the XYZ permission list to Configuration Manager.
E. Add the XYZ permission list to a role and then assign that role to a user.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 311-232
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java Platform, Enterprise Edition 6 Web Services Developer Certified Professional Exam)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 HTTP clients can provide authentication information to the server via the "Authorization"
header in the HTTP request. Choose the alternative, if any, that would serve as the definition for a
resource method that would allow a JAX-RS resource to obtain this authentication data (Choose
one):
A. It is impossible for a JAX-RS resource to obtain this information, since low-level HTTP data is
not presented to the JAX-RS application layer.
B. @GET @Path("/authInfo")
public String getAuthInfo( String authenticate ) {
return authenticate;
}
C. @GET @Path("/authInfo/{AUTHENTICATE}")
public String getAuthInfo(
@PathParam("Authorization") String auth ) {
return authenticate;
}
D. @GET @Path("/authInfo")
public String getAuthInfo(
@HeaderParam("Authorization") String auth ) {
return authenticate;
}
Answer: D

Oracle   311-232   certification 311-232   311-232 examen   311-232 examen

NO.2 What are two valid facts about WS-I? (Choose two.)
A. The I-Stack is a great development tool.
B. The WS-I promotes and supports generic protocols for the interoperable exchange of
messages.
C. The WS-I governs languages and protocols such as SOAP, WSDL, and UDDI.
D. The WS-I specifies specific rules that address either weaknesses in component specifications
or issues of how to combine the collected
technology.
E. The WS-I has been a guiding force in creating StAX.
Answer: B,D

Oracle   311-232 examen   311-232 examen   311-232 examen   311-232 examen

NO.3 Where can a developer specify confidentiality or integrity constraints on communications with
a Enterprise Bean exposed as a JAX-RS root resource?(Choose one)
A. As annotations on the EJB exposed as a root resource.
B. In the deployment descriptor for the EJB exposed as a root resource.
C. In the deployment descriptor for the web application that is hosting the JAX-RS resource.
D. In the vendor-specific configuration file for the container that is hosting the JAX-RS resource.
Answer: C

Oracle   311-232   311-232   certification 311-232   311-232 examen   311-232 examen

NO.4 When working directly with SOAP, which two statements are true about the encoding of
compound values? (Choose two.)
A. Compound values cannot be encoded.
B. A compound value may NOT contain other compound values.
C. Members of a compound value are encoded as accessor elements.
D. Accessors with names that are local to their containing types have unqualified names.
Answer: C,D

Oracle   311-232   311-232   311-232 examen

NO.5 A developer needs to write a Web service that supports user sessions that timeout after 120
seconds. Which configuration file is correct for the developer use? (Choose one)
A. web.xml
B. server.xml
C. ejb-jar.xml
D. service-config.xml
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-514
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 Redo log files and data files are opened.
A. 2, 3, 1
B. 4, 1, 5
C. 1, 5, 4, 2
D. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
E. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-514 examen   certification 1Z0-514   1Z0-514 examen
5.Which two statements are true regarding consistent backups? (Choose two)
A. Database can be opened immediately after the restore operation.
B. Database can be opened only after the restore and recovery operations.
C. Consistent backups can be taken only when the instance is running and the database is closed.
D. Consistent backups can be taken only when the instance is shut clown and the database is closed.
E. Consistent backup are taken before the changes in the online redo log files haw been applied to the
data files.
Answer: A, D

Oracle   1Z0-514   1Z0-514 examen

NO.2 The DBA of your database informs you that the Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only the SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only the background and user processes are running.
D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-514   1Z0-514   1Z0-514

NO.3 Which two statements are true regarding the usage of tools in administering an Oracle database?
(Choose two.)
A. Oracle Net Manager: configure a new or existing listener
B. Data Pump: transfer of data from one database to another
C. SQL*Loader: load data horn an Oracle database to an external file
D. Database Upgrade Assistant: upgradeonly single-instance databases
E. Database configuration Assistant (DBCA): create new database userin an existing database
Answer: A, B

Oracle examen   1Z0-514   1Z0-514   1Z0-514

NO.4 You issue the following command as a DBA: SQL>SHUTDOWN
What would be the outcome of the above command?
A. It causes the instance to abort.
B. It waits for all sessions to disconnect.
C. It rolls back the current transactions and disconnects a/I sessions.
D. It waits for the current transaction in each session to complete before disconnecting the sessions.
Answer: B

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NO.5 View the exhibit.
Which actions would be performed and in what sequence by clicking the Startup button?
1) Control file is read.
2) Memory is allocated.
3) Background processes are started.
4) Initialization parameter file is read.

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-541
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle WebCenter 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Which option describes how to customize a wiki page component in Oracle Composer?
A. Using any editor, open the ADFComponent.xml file in the services folder, and then edit the file where
the wiki component is listed with the required customization. Save the file.
B. In the edit mode, edit the wiki page component by clicking the pencil icon and modifying the Source
parameter. Click Save.
C. Select Group Spaces. Click Settings. Click Add/Remove components. Add Wiki component.
D. Click to the Wiki page. Select the pencil icon to go into edit mode. Select the Customization tab to
make customizations. Click Save to save the changes.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are using WebCenter Spaces and want to add content to a page using the Content Presenter.
On the Content Page, select the Content Source. You need to define and enter query criteria to select
content and define the order in which the content displays on the page. What do you select?
A. Content under a folder
B. Single Content Item
C. Results of a Query
D. List of items
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which option best describes the resource catalog?
A. A resource catalog is a file that lists all the users registered with WebCenter Spaces.
B. A resource catalog is a run-time tool that is loaded with WebCenter spaces, which allows users to
communicate with the back-end databases.
C. A resource catalog is a listing of tools and services that can be added into the page at run time.
D. A resource catalog is a dictionary that contains all the business rules required for Oracle Composer.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Identify three core modules of ADF Business Components.?
A. Entity Object
B. View Object
C. Web Service
D. Application Module
E. EJB
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 The Worklist service in WebCenter Spaces refreshes automatically with new messages, alerts, and
notifications every _____minutes. (This is the default.)
A. 60
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
Answer: B

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NO.6 You want to create a custom list based on an existing template. From the Create List dialog box, select
a template to create the new custom list. Which three choices are valid selections?
A. Issues
B. Milestones
C. Objectives
D. Projects
Answer:A, B,C

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NO.7 In Oracle Composer, which two options describe the type of pages that are available out of the box?
A. The Business Analytics Page
B. The Wiki Page
C. The Web Page
D. The Worklist Page
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Which option best describes the fundamental purpose of an Enterprise portal?
A. A portal application that presents static content
B. A portal application that will have back-end connectivity with applications as well databases
C. A portal that will provide a component-based environment that would allow dynamic
customization of components as well as the application
D. A portal that is designed to host a shopping cart for purchased products and allow users to purchase
with either cash or credit card
Answer: B

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NO.9 As a WebCenter Spaces user, when you view My Worklist items, the window refreshes and two items
no longer appear. What caused the Worklist items to be removed?
A. Any Worklist item that is no longer of the Open state is removed from the Worklist during the next
refresh.
B. Any Worklist item that is no longer of the UnRead state is removed from the Workiist during the next
refresh.
C. Any Worklist item that is no longer of the Assigned state is removed from the Worklist during the next
refresh.
D. Any Worklist item that is no longer of the Completed state is removed from the Worklist during the next
refresh.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which three steps are needed for using task flows with business components in multiple
applications?
A. Create the task flow in each application.
B. Create the task flow once.
C. Deploy the task flow to an ADF Library.
D. Add the ADF Library to the web (UI) project.
E. Import the task flow in each application.
Answer: B,C,D

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2014年4月29日星期二

Guide de formation plus récente de IBM C2180-379

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Code d'Examen: C2180-379
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Integration Developer V6.2, Solution Development)
Questions et réponses: 55 Q&As

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NO.1 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which statement correctly describes the configuration?
A. It is not possible for Snippet4 and Snippet 6 to run in parallel.
B. Snippet6 and Snippet8 can run in parallel.
C. The business process contains a deadlock.
D. The process will not compile if it is configured to be short running.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A BPEL process is in an SCA module which as been configured to depend on a Java project. The
Java project contains a JAR file and that JAR file is set up as a library in the Java class path properties of
the Java project.
Which one of the following statements is true?
A. Assets in the JAR will be shared by-copy.
B. Assets in the JAR will be shared by-reference.
C. Deep nesting of the JAR file creates an unsupported circular reference.
D. References to classes in the JAR file within a Java snippet will result in compilation errors.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Refer to the Exhibit.
An integration developer has designed and implemented business objects like the ones in the Exhibit.
Assuming the integration developer needs to write a service as a Java component which needs to read
the first ordered item warehouse, which one of the following code fragments is appropriate (assume order
is a DataObject which actually stores the order)?
A. order.get("orderedItems[0]/warehouseId")
B. ((DataObject)order.get ("orderedItems")[0]).getInt("warehouseId")
C. (((DataObject[])order.get("orderedItems"))[0]).getInt("warehouseId")
D. ((DataObject)order.getList("orderedItems").get(0)).getInt("warehouseId")}
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which activities require usage of a long-running process?
A. Wait
B. Receive Choice
C. Collaboration Scope
D. Asynchronous invocation
E. More than one Receive or Receive Choice activity.
Answer: AE

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NO.5 An integration developer is implementing a solution and needs to create a Business Object "Customer"
using Java snippets.
What is the correct way to accomplish this task?
A. Use com.ibm.websphere.sca.Service to create a Customer BODataObject, which is a Business Object,
in the appropriate namespace.
B. Use com.ibm.websphere.sca.Service to get BOFactory and use BOFactory to create the Customer
Business Object in the appropriate namespace.
C. Use com.ibm.websphere.sca.ServiceManager to create a Customer BODataObject, which is a
Business Object, in the appropriate namespace.
D. Use com.ibm.websphere.sca.ServiceManager to get BOFactory and use BOFactory to create the
Customer Business Object in the appropriate namespace.
Answer: D

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NO.6 An integration solution includes a business process which needs to invoke a business service. This
service is going to be replaced in a certain known date and time, when a new third party provider will take
ownership of it, honoring a three year contract which starts right at that date. Old and new services do not
differ in terms of their interface.
What is the best way to implement the business process binding to the services?
A. Configure and invoke a Selector for switching services at the specific date and time.
B. Configure and invoke Selector for switching services at the specific date and time, using a mediation
for request routing.
C. Develop and invoke a mediation which routes to the old or new service depending on the request time.
D. Develop and invoke a mediation which routes the request to a Selector, which must be configured for
switching services at the specific date and time.
Answer: A

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NO.7 An integration solution includes a business process which needs to poll an FTP server for detecting a
specific CSV file creation. As the file gets created, it must be parsed and its data must be stored in a
Business Object. This Business Object is then processed in the Business Process according to the
process logic.
How would the integration developer most effectively implement this?
A. Use the FTP Adapter in a mediation and XSLT primitives to convert the CSV file to a Business Object.
B. Develop a Web service wrapping the FTP protocol and invoke it through a mediation which uses XSLT
primitives to convert the CSV file to a Business Object.
C. Use the FTP Adapter in a mediation and Business Object Map primitives to convert the CSV file to a
Business Object.
D. Use the FTP Adapter combined with a data handler responsible for transforming from the file content to
the Business Object.
Answer: D

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NO.8 An integration developer has been given the task of training a group of new developers who have no
experience with WebSphere Integration Developer.
Which statements are most likely to be included in the training presentation introducing human task and
their usage in WebSphere Integration Developer?
A. Stand-alone tasks are invoked as a service and can invoke other services.
B. Stand-alone tasks do not have direct access to process-related information.
C. Inline human tasks are SCA component activity.
D. Inline human tasks can not be used to create human task for process administration.
E. Inline tasks can not be used to apply permissions to BPEL activities like invoke, receive etc.
Answer: AB

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NO.9 An integration developer is developing a solution which must make use of an existing Web service. The
Web service provider sent a complete WSDL (including XSDs, port types, bindings) for allowing the
solution to consume it.
How can the developer create the corresponding Interface and Web Service Port on WebSphere
Integration Developer?
A. Import the WSDL (Import wizard, Web Services ? Web Service), which automatically will create Web
service Port and Interface according to the WSDL
B. Import the WSDL (Import wizard, Web Services ? Web Service) in order to get the correct Web Service
Port, then manually create the Interface according to the provider Web service characteristics
C. Import the WSDL file (Import wizard, General ? File System), open the WSDL with the WSDL editor
and use the information in it to create Web Service Port and Interface
D. Import the WSDL (Import wizard, Business Integration ? WSDL/Interface), then manually create Web
Service Port
E. Import the WSDL (Import wizard, Business Integration ? WSDL/Interface), which automatically will
create Web Service Port and Interface according to the WSDL
Answer: E

IBM   certification C2180-379   C2180-379 examen

NO.10 A solution developer is planning the design of a web based music catalog that allows users to listen to
music via an online streaming feature, or to purchase individual selections for download.
What approach would the solution developer take when organizing the work in WebSphere Integration
Developer in order to maximize the reuse potential of the solution?
A. Place the streaming logic in one module and the download logic in a separate module, then place the
common interface files in a library.
B. Place the streaming logic and the download logic in the same integration solution, then place the
interface files in separate libraries.
C. Use two libraries to keep the interfaces of both services separate, then place the application logic of
both services into a single module.
D. Use a single integration solution to store and deploy the entire application, then separate the backend
logic into separate modules.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C2090-420
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM InfoSphere MDM Server v9.0)
Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 You are installing a standalone development environment on a workstation PC with
both the database
and application server running on the PC.
Which statement is true regarding the installation and configuration of this environment?
A. The database tables must be setup manually by running the provided SQL scripts.
B. A database and database user need to exist, but the InfoSphere MDM Server Workbench
tooling can
setup the necessary tables as part of an automated process.
C. A database server needs to be installed, but the InfoSphere MDM Server Workbench
tooling will
automatically setup everything, including creation of a database user, as part of an
automated process.
D. The application server needs to be manually configured with the appropriate data sources
which the
InfoSphere MDM Server Workbench will then use to setup the database as part of an
automated process.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two statements are true regarding tracking InfoSphere MDM Server
performance? (Choose
two.)
A. InfoSphere MDM Server provides the ability to capture performance statistics for the
transactions.
B. Performance tracking is a configurable option in InfoSphere MDM Server.
C. When performance tracking is configured to Level 1, you will obtain maximum details of all
the
components.
D. You can use Log4j to redirect MDM performance log to a log file.
Answer: AB

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NO.3 You have a business requirement for an insurance domain. A party needs to declare
existing medical
conditions. A party can have multiple ailments. The attributes of an ailment depend upon the
nature of
ailment and there is no search requirement on ailment attributes. Additional attributes of an
ailment are
frequently added.
What should you do?
A. Create a data extension to the party.
B. Retain in the insurance system.
C. Create appropriate party demographic specs.
D. Create data addition.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have set up an InfoSphere MDM Server development environment using a test
WebSphere
Application Server, locally installed DB2, and have developed a new data extension. After
deploying and
testing the data extension you need to add some additional attributes to it. You modify the
data extension
model and re-generate the code.
Before running the generated database setup scripts to deploy the changed database
definitions, which
step is required?
A. Run the generated database rollback scripts.
B. Run the Configuration and Management component.
C. Run the Development Environment Setup wizard.
D. Restart the server.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your client has several external rules used in their solution. The client is experiencing
performance
problems. You are trying to determine which external rule is causing the performance
bottleneck.
Which two configurations are needed to track the performance using the performance tracker
component
of InfoSphere MDM Server. (Choose two.)
A. Set the
/IBM/DWLCommonServices/PerformanceTracking/ExternalBusinessRules/enabled
configuration property to true.
B. Set the
/IBM/DWLCommonServices/PerformanceTracking/ExternalBusinessRules/enabled
configuration property to false.
C. Set tracking level as "-1" to indicate that you are enabling custom performance tracking.
D. The default level performance tracking level 0 will be enough to track the performance
effectively.
Answer: AC

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NO.6 A granular composite Java proxy, CompositePartyAddressTxnBP.java, is created to
process (search,
inquiry, and persist) partyAddress records in InfoSphere MDM Server application.
Which two steps are required to implement CompositePartyAddressTxnBP.java? (Choose
two.)
A.Extend DWLTxnBP and create a public method execute() to overwrite the
com.dwl.base.requesthandler.DWLTxnBP.execute() method.
B. Implement the IBusProxy interface and add business logic in the execute() method.
C. Invoke the appropriate method in TCRMPartyComponent.java to complete the transaction.
D. Invoke the super.execute() method to delegate transactions to the appropriate MDM
controller to
complete the transaction.
Answer: AD

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NO.7 You have set up an InfoSphere MDM Server development environment using a test
WebSphere
Application Server, locally installed DB2, and developed a new data extension.
Which three steps are required when deploying the modified MDM application to the
WebSphere test
server? (Choose three.)
A. Publish changes in the workspace to the WebSphere Application Server.
B. Update properties.jar and DWLSchemas.jar in the MDM application project.
C. Run the generated SQL scripts to set up the database.
D. Merge the generated properties and XSD file snippets into the files in the
CustomerResources project.
E. Deploy the configuration to the WebSphere Application Server.
Answer: ACD

IBM   C2090-420   C2090-420

NO.8 What are three ways to determine which InfoSphere MDM Server components are
causing
performance bottlenecks? (Choose three.)
A. Capture performance data using the logging component of InfoSphere MDM Server.
B. Use Tivoli Performance Viewer of WebSphere Application Server to summarize reports of
performance
statistics.
C. Capture the data stored in the Transaction Audit Information Log of InfoSphere MDM
Server.
D. Use ARM4.0 implementation to measure the availability and performance of transactions.
E. Review the history tables data.
Answer: ABD

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NO.9 You are configuring InfoSphere MDM Server for a financial institution with a large
number of
customers.
Which two statements are correct regarding performance of the InfoSphere MDM Server
application?
(Choose two.)
A. Turning on the suspect Duplicate Processing feature does not have any impact on the
performance.
B. The Transaction Audit Information Log will not have any impact on the performance.
C. Smart inquiries help in minimizing the performance impact.
D. The summary data indicators feature avoids queries on a per transaction basis thus
helping improve
performance.
Answer: CD

IBM   C2090-420   C2090-420   C2090-420

NO.10 You are setting up a new workstation using WebSphere Application Server 6.1.
What are two manual steps that must be completed when setting up InfoSphere MDM Server
on the
workstation PC? (Choose two.)
A. Change the default JRE to the WebSphere Application Server JRE.
B. Change the default JRE to the Eclipse JDK.
C. Set the compiler level to 1.5.
D. Add BusinessServices.jar and DWLCommonServices.jar to the Java build path as User
Libraries.
Answer: AC

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NO.11 Where in the InfoSphere MDM Server Workbench can you set the database schema
name?
A. in an MDM Module Project "module.mdmxmi" file
B. in an MDM Module Project "mdmgen.properties" file
C. in the MDM Application Model "application.mdmxmi" file
D. within the "resources" folder in an MDM Module Project
Answer: C

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NO.12 When configuring the Configuration and Management component of InfoSphere MDM
Server for
J2EE, what is the correct value for the "NAME" column of the APPDEPLOYMENT table?
A. the installation directory of the application
B. the name of the application as known by the application server and specified in the
bootstrap.properties file
C. the name of the cluster node on which the instance runs
D. the URI indicating the JMX remote connector server through which incoming connections
can be made
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which capability of Rational Software Architect must be enabled before developing
extensions or
additions?
A. Java Persistence API Transformation
B. Enterprise Java Developer
C. J2EE Developer
D. Web Service Developer
Answer: C

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NO.14 As part of a maintenance team for an InfoSphere MDM Server implementation, you are
investigating
the "EndDate must be after StartDate" error. This error is generated multiple times when
uploading large
delta requests containing multiple objects of different types.
Which action would help you to quickly detect the object causing this error?
A. Check all of the objects in the request message for discrepancy in the dates.
B. Run the transaction causing the error in debug mode.
C. Check the error response for component details to identify the correct object type.
D. Change the log level to a higher level.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two subcomponents make up the Configuration and Management component
of InfoSphere
MDM Server? (Choose two.)
A. A separate set of database tables that may reside on a separate database.
B. A set of database tables that must reside on the same database as InfoSphere MDM
Server.
C. A configuration management console that runs as part of the InfoSphere MDM Server
runtime.
D. A configuration management agent that runs as a separate process from the InfoSphere
MDM Server
runtime.
Answer: AD

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NO.16 A customer wants to implement a new search transaction (searchbyZipCode) at the
controller
component level. This is implemented by associating a finder class to this transaction. This
finder class
contains the business logic to search for all party details that match the zip code supplied in
the input
request by a direct SQL statement call.
What are two steps necessary to implement this customization? (Choose two.)
A. Assign a name for this transaction, e.g., searchByZipCode -- modify the OOTB request
XML to reflect
the required structure for input for the search parameter by changing the appropriate search
transaction.
B. Ensure that the MDM extension framework is disabled (enabled = false).
C. Register the transaction name searchByZipCode?in the CDBUSINESSTXTP table.
D. Register the new transaction name searchByZipCode?within the
tcrm_extension.properties files.
Answer: CD

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NO.17 What are three behaviors of InfoSphere MDM Server that the Configuration and
Management
component controls? (Choose three.)
A. enabling and disabling notifications
B. configuring external validations
C. configuring performance tracking
D. enabling and disabling suspect duplicate processing
E. defining custom error messages
Answer: ACD

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NO.18 As part of an InfoSphere MDM Server application maintenance team, you are analyzing
the numerous
warnings that appear in the InfoSphere MDM Server log file.
What will help you to quickly detect the component producing a particular warning message?
A. Set the logging to the finest level.
B. The sequence of execution flow should logically point to the component.
C. Unique message identifiers used by InfoSphere MDM Server.
D. Adequate experience in InfoSphere MDM Server is required.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
<soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"
xmlns:soapenc="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"
xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"
xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance">
<soapenv:Body>
<soapenv:Fault>
<faultcode>soapenv:Server.securityException</faultcode>
<faultstring>com.ibm.wsspi.wssecurity.SoapSecurityException: WSEC5048E: One of "SOAP
Header"
elements required.</faultstring>
<detail encodingStyle="" />
</soapenv:Fault>
</soapenv:Body>
</soapenv:Envelope>
You have set up an InfoSphere MDM Server development environment using a test
WebSphere
Application Server and locally installed DB2. The WebSphere Application Server security is
not enabled.
You run the "addPerson" Web service and receive the response shown in the exhibit.
Which step is required to allow the Web service request to succeed?
A. Set the configuration setting /IBM/DWLCommonServices/Security/enabled to false.
B. Redeploy the party Web service module with security disabled.
C. Run Prepare for Deployment on the MDM application.
D. Use the correct user ID and password in the request.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which two reasons would justify the execution of the Evergreen application? (Choose
two.)
A. The solution has been upgraded to the new version of InfoSphere MDM Server.
B. New Rules of Visibility have been deployed.
C. Suspect processing is enabled in an operational environment after the initial load of data
with suspect
processing is bypassed.
D. Party matching rules have changed.
Answer: CD

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